INICET May 2022

Multiple Choice Quiz INICET May 2022 questions

Which of the following local anesthetics causes hypertension?

A: Lignocaine
B: Bupivacaine
C: Cocaine
D: Prilocaine

Which skull foramen is formed by 3 bones?

A: Foramen rotundum
B: Foramen jugulare
C: Foramen lacerum
D: Foramen magnum

Which is not a branch of the facial artery in the face?

A: Superior labial
B: Inferior labial
C: Mental
D: Lateral nasal

Dorzolamide is a ………….

A: Opioid receptor agonist
B: Topical ocular carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
C: Second – generation sulfonylurea
D: Topically applied sulfonamide antibacterial

Superior gluteal nerve supplies all of the following structures except:

A: Gluteus minimus
B: Tensor fasciae latae
C: Piriformis
D: Gluteus medius

Which of the following techniques is used to detect DNA-protein interaction?

A: DNA foot printing
B: Northern blotting
C: DNA fingerprinting
D: ELISA

What are the derivatives of the marked cells(neural crest)?
1. Odontoblasts
2. Sympathetic chain
3. Melanocytes
4. Nephrogenic cord
5. Bulbus cordis
6. Conotruncal septum

A: 1,2,3,4
B: 2,3,4,6
C: 1,3,5,6
D: 1,2,3,6

Which of the following muscles form the pelvic diaphragm?
A. Iliococcygeus B. Pubococcygeus C. Obturator internus D. Deep transverse perinei

A: A,B
B: A,B,C,D
C: A,B,D
D: A,D

A patient was diagnosed with Ewing sarcoma with ESWR1 gene mutation. The technique shown in the image was performed to confirm the diagnosis. Identify the technique shown in the image.

A: Sanger’s technique
B: Immunohistochemistry
C: Karyotyping
D: Fluorescent in situ hybridisation

Which of the following is not an immune checkpoint inhibitor?

A: Pempbrolizumab
B: Cetuximab
C: Nivolumab
D: Atezolimumab

Fracture of the jugular canal can present as:

A: Loss of taste sensation in anterior 2/3rd of tongue
B: Loss of taste sensation in posterior 1/3rd of tongue
C: Loss of general sensation in anterior 2/3rd of tongue
D: Loss of motor sensation in anterior 2/3rd of tongue

The banding technique used for dicentric chromosomes is:

A: NOR
B: C banding
C: G banding
D: R banding

Injury of the lower brachial plexus leads to Klumpke’s paralysis. What is the characteristic clinical finding seen in this lesion?

A: Claw hand
B: Wrist drop
C: Policeman tip hand
D: Horner’s syndrome

NAPQI is the metabolite of which of the following drug toxicity?

A: Aspirin
B: Diclofenac
C: Ketorolac
D: Paracetamol

Identify the liver segment marked in the image below:

A: III
B: Iva
C: V
D: VII

Misincorporation of uracil into DNA is seen in deficiency of:

A: Vitamin B6
B: Vitamin E
C: Folate
D: Vitamin B12

Which of the following lobes of the lung is affected when there is aspiration in supine position?

A: Right middle lobe
B: Right superior lobe
C: Upper part of right inferior lobe
D: Lingula

A young boy with a history of multiple blood transfusions presents with bone pain for the past 6 months. A peripheral smear showed sickle-shaped RBCs. Which of the following drugs are not used in the treatment of his condition?

A: L-glutamine
B: Voxelotor
C: Bebtelovimab
D: Hydroxyurea

Glycogen phosphorylase is activated by:

A: Protein phosphatase
B: Insulin
C: Calcium
D: Glucose-6-phosphate

Identify the cranial nerve that arises medial from the marked part.

A: Facial nerve
B: Glossopharyngeal nerve
C: Abducens nerve
D: Oculomotor nerve

The half-life of letrozole is:

A: 70 hours
B: 90 hours
C: 46 hours
D: 120 hours

Which of the following are a part of the limbic system?
1. Amygdala
2. Hippocampus
3. Thalamus

A: 1,3
B: 2,3
C: 1,2,3
D: 1,2

A baby is brought to the OPD complaining of lethargy and poor feeding. On examination, it was noted that the urine smelled of burnt sugar. A defect in which of the following enzymes causes this disease?

A: Branched-chain ketoacid dehydrogenase
B: Branched-chain amino acid
C: Branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase
D: Branched-chain ketoacid oxidase

A 50-year-old male presented with a positive Trendelenburg test on the right side. Identify the nerve injured.

A: Right superior gluteal nerve
B: Right inferior gluteal nerve
C: Left inferior gluteal nerve
D: Left superior gluteal nerve

Refsum disease is due to:

A: Absence of beta-oxidation in lysosomes
B: Absence of alpha oxidation in peroxisomes
C: Absence of beta-oxidation in peroxisomes
D: Absence of alpha oxidation in lysosomes

The given diagram shows the steps in bacterial cell wall formation. Identify the site of action of beta-lactam antibiotics:

A: DNA Polymerase
B: PBP
C: DNA gyrase
D: 30s Ribosome

An elderly patient on a vegetarian diet presenting with easy fatigability and pallor was investigated. Peripheral smear showed findings of macrocytic anemia. What is the probable cause of anemia in this patient? Other lab findings:
● Hemoglobin - 9 g/dl
● MCV - 111 fL
● Serum homocysteine – elevated
● Serum methylmalonic acid – Normal

A: Folate deficiency
B: Thiamine deficiency
C: Vitamin B12 deficiency
D: Alcohol-induced macrocytosis

A patient presents with a satellite skin lesion. On examination, he has one hypopigmented lesion and one thickened nerve. Two blister packs are shown.Packet 1 green, Packet 2 purple. What is the best treatment for this patient?

A: Packet 2 for 6 months
B: Packet 1 for 12 months
C: Packet 2 for 12 months
D: Packet 1 for 6 months

Phospholipase C acts via which of the following G protein–coupled receptors?

A: Gq
B: Go
C: Gi
D: Gs

Zellweger syndrome is due to a defect in the biogenesis of:

A: Peroxisomes
B: Mitochondria
C: Nucleus
D: Lysosomes

A 60-year-old diabetic female patient presents with progressive skin lesions, as shown in the image. What is the diagnosis?

A: Melasma
B: Basal cell carcinoma
C: Discoid lupus erythematosus
D: Squamous cell carcinoma

Fructosamine is obtained by glycation of:

A: Glycosaminoglycan
B: Albumin
C: Fructose
D: Urea

Urinary alkalinization will be most useful in toxicity of which of the following drugs?

A: Beta-blockers
B: Acetaminophen
C: Calcium channel blockers
D: Aspirin

A 10-year-old boy has weakness in his lower limbs and a rash over the eyelids. The biopsy shows inflammation of the muscle. What is the finding shown in the image below?

A: Shawl sign
B: Heliotrope rash
C: Scleroderma
D: Gottron’s papules

Which of the following is required for the cannulation of a newborn?
1. 22G needle 2. 24G needle 3. 5-mL syringe 4. Adhesive tape 5. Normal saline

A: 2,3,4,5
B: 1,4
C: 2,4
D: 1,3,4,5

A female patient came to the hospital with a history of relapsing, remitting, mildly itchy erythematous plaques over the scalp, sacral area, and knees. She has a history of joint pain, and nail changes. What is your diagnosis?

A: Adult-onset Still’s disease
B: Pachyonychia congenita
C: Psoriasis
D: Lichen planus

Identify the incorrect statement in rapid sequence intubation.

A: It is the method of choice in cardiac arrest patient
B: Preoxygenation with 100% oxygen for 3 min is done
C: The induction agent and muscle relaxant are given simultaneously
D: High – volume, low-pressure cuff is used

Which of the following is the most characteristic feature of Kallmann syndrome?

A: Anosmia
B: White forelock
C: Precocious puberty in females
D: Syndactyly in males

A patient who is a known addict is brought to the hospital with the intoxication of an agent. An ocular examination shows the following finding. Which of the following is true regarding this condition?

A: It is caused by activation of the Edinger-Westphal nucleus
B: This action can be reversed by phenylephrine
C: It cannot be reversed by levallorphan
D: Tolerance develops due to long-term use

A 40-year-old chronic alcoholic presented with withdrawal symptoms. His liver function tests showed AST 140 IU/L, ALT 110 IU/L, and GGT 500 IU/L. Which of the following benzodiazepines can be safely administered to this patient?

A: Lorazepam
B: Clonazepam
C: Diazepam
D: Alprazolam

Which of the following does not help in the localisation of lesions in the spinal cord?

A: Ipsilateral loss of proprioception
B: Upper motor neuron lesion and lower motor neuron lesion
C: Bladder involvement
D: Contralateral hemiplegia

The image below shows the life cycle of a virus. Which of the following drugs acts at integrase?

A: Enfuvirtide
B: Zidovudine
C: Raltegravir
D: Tenofovir

A 40-year-old man presents with 15 days of fever and altered sensorium for 1 day. Rapid diagnostic test was done, and plasmodium falciparum was diagnosed. Which of the following is not a complication?

A: Blood glucose <40 mg/dL
B: Arterial pH >7.2
C: Serum creatinine 5.2
D: Unarousable coma

A female patient presents to the hospital with palpitations. Her vitals are stable and the ECG shows the following. Which of the following is used as first-line management to treat the condition?

A: Primary PCI
B: DC cardioversion
C: Amiodarone
D: Adenosine

Which of the following is not a feature of Brown Sequard syndrome?

A: Ipsilateral loss of vibration & touch
B: Ipsilateral loss of proprioception
C: Contralateral loss of pain & temperature
D: Complete transection of spinal cord

What lesion would cause an exaggerated ankle reflex on clinical examination?

A. Lower motor neuron
B. Polyneuropathy
C. Upper motor neuron
D. Radiculopathy

What is the next best step in management for a ventilated ARDS patient with PaO2 of 50 mmHg on FiO2 of 90%, pH 7.38, paCO2 38mmhg, PEEP 5cm of h20?

A. Increase tidal volume
B. Increase respiratory rate
C. Increase PEEP
D. Reduce FiO2

What is the grade of tympanic membrane retraction shown in the image?

A. Grade 4
B. Grade 2
C. Grade 3
D. Grade 1

A patient has vertigo with horizontal nystagmus. The slow component is to the left. Most likely diagnosis?

A. Left hypoactive labyrinth
B. Superior canal BPPV
C. Posterior canal BPPV
D. Right hypoactive labyrinth

Foreign body entry into the laryngeal inlet is prevented by the cough reflex. Which nerve is most likely injured if the cough reflex is sluggish after alcohol ingestion?

A. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve
C. Internal laryngeal nerve
D. External laryngeal nerve

Which of the following tests cannot be used to assess nasal mucociliary clearance?

A. Scintigraphy
B. Saccharine test
C. Electron microscopy
D. Charcoal powder method

Match Wullstein’s classification with the corresponding procedure:
A. Type II B. Type III C. Type IV D. Type V
1. Fenestration tympanoplasty 2. Graft placed over the incus 3. Cavum minor 4. Columella tympanoplasty

A. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
B. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
C. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
D. A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

Which statement is correct regarding clinical trials?

A. Phase 3 is always double blinded
B. New drug application is done after phase 4
C. Phase 4 is also called post marketing surveillance
D. Phase 2 is done on healthy individuals

Match the following teratogenic drugs with their effects:
1. Lithium 2. Chloramphenicol 3. Warfarin 4. Thalidomide
a. Phocomelia b. Depressed nasal bridge c. Gray baby syndrome d. Ebstein anomaly

A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
B. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
D. 1-d, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c

Which tests can be used if otoacoustic emissions are absent for screening?
1. Pure tone audiometry 2. Tympanometry 3. Free field audiometry 4. Speech audiometry

A. 2 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4

A young man has fever, altered consciousness, and CSF with neutrophils, high protein, elevated pressure and normal glucose. Treatment?

A. Amphotericin B + flucytosine
B. Piperacillin + tazobactam
C. Vancomycin + ceftriaxone
D. Antitubercular therapy

Match the following diuretics to their site of action:
A. Acetazolamide B. Torsemide C. Chlorthalidone D. Vasopressin
1. Thick ascending loop of Henle 2. Collecting duct 3. Distal convoluted tubule 4. Proximal convoluted tubule

A. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
B. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
C. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
D. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

A patient gets breathless when going to the bathroom. What NYHA grade is this?

A. NYHA 3
B. NYHA 4
C. MMRC 4
D. MMRC 5

Which agent can be used as a disinfectant but not a sanitizer?

A. Bleaching powder
B. Methyl paraben
C. Penicillin
D. Hydrogen peroxide

Which vaccines are recommended in the elderly?
1. Varicella zoster virus 2. Rota virus 3. Measles 4. Pneumococcal Meningitis

A. 1, 4
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 2, 3, 4
D. 1, 3

Myosin ceases to be in contact with actin filaments as a result of:

A. Conformational change in Troponin T
B. Cessation of calcium release from the sarcoplasm
C. Attachment of ATP to the myosin head
D. Dissociation of ADP and Pi

An increased anion gap is seen in:

A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic acidosis

Which of the following is wrong regarding primary and secondary immune response?

A. Lag period is shorter in secondary response
B. Secondary response is more potent
C. Isotype generated is IgM in primary
D. Antibody affinity is higher in primary response

Which of the following is an example of mollicutes?

A. Ureaplasmaurealyticum
B. Orientia tsustsugamushi
C. Chlamydia trachomats
D. Chlamydophilia pneumoniae

Based on the ECG given, which of the following drugs is not used in the management of the condition?

A. Diltiazem
B. Amiodarone
C. Verapamil
D. Propranolol

Transport of iron into enterocytes is done by which of the following proteins:

A. Hepcidin
B. Transferrin
C. Divalent metal transporter – 1
D. Ferroportin

A CT scan shows a parasitic cyst. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the condition?

A. FNAC or biopsy to be done before nephrectomy
B. Segmented dog tapeworm is the causative agent
C. Albendazole can be started preoperatively
D. Cyst contents can produce anaphylactic reaction

Flow through a vessel B with 2L and 2D compared to vessel A with L and D (laminar flow):

A. 32 times
B. 4 times
C. 8 times
D. 16 times

Which virus exhibits genetic re-assortment like influenza?

A. Rheo
B. Rabies
C. Measles
D. Rhino

Female became mute and quadriplegic post sodium correction. Most likely cause?

A. Severe catatonia
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
C. Rapid sodium correction
D. Malignant hyperthermia

Cell wall shown in image is most likely of:

A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Rhinosporidumseeberi
D. Aspergillus fumigatus

If pH drops to 7.3 and PO2 is constant, which line would PCO2 follow?

A. Line 1
B. Line 4
C. Line 3
D. Line 2

Microscopy technique to produce high contrast image of transparent, live bacteria:

A. Phase contrast microscopy
B. Electron microscopy
C. Dark field microscopy
D. Polarized microscopy

Which electrolyte abnormality is seen in methanol intoxication?

A. Metabolic acidosis with high anion gap
B. Metabolic alkalosis with high anion gap
C. Metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap
D. Metabolic alkalosis with normal anion gap

A farmer has eye pain and discharge after leaf injury. What is the finding?

A. Aqueous flare
B. Hypopyon
C. Arlt line
D. Hyphema

Which of the following viruses show genetic change similar to influenza virus?

A. HIV
B. Hepatitis B
C. Measles
D. Epstein-Barr Virus

What is the most common cause of moderate–severe visual impairment according to the National Blindness and Visual Impairment Survey 2015-19?

A. Refractive error
B. Untreated cataract
C. Glaucoma
D. Diabetic retinopathy

A patient presents with cough, cold, fever and malaise associated with weight loss and ascites. Ascitic fluid analysis showed elevated adenosine deaminase. Which of the following is the next step in management?

A. Biopsy
B. Start ATT after laparotomy stricture removal
C. Start anti-tubercular therapy
D. Conservative management

A patient comes with a history of high fever for 5 days and altered sensorium. On further probing, it was found that he had two seizures one day ago. Peripheral smear shows the following findings. How will you manage this patient?

A. Doxycycline 100 mg intravenously for 7 days
B. Clindamycin 600 mg intravenously 8 hourly for 7 days
C. Artesunate 2.4 mg / kg intravenously at 12 and 24 hours, followed by daily once
D. Chloroquine intramuscularly 8 hourly for 3 days

A female patient presents to the AIIMS emergency department with severe fatigue and prostration. She is a known case of chronic stable angina. While collecting a blood sample, you notice the blood has a brownish hue. What is the underlying diagnosis?

A. Carboxy-hemoglobinemia
B. Sideroblastic anaemia
C. Methemoglobinemia
D. Sulfhemoglobinemia

All of the following are seen in anemia of chronic disease except:

A. High serum hepcidin
B. Low serum ferritin
C. Chronic infection
D. Normal iron stores

Neurosecretory bodies are seen in all except

A. Medullary thyroid carcinoma
B. Pituitary adenoma
C. Paraganglioma
D. Adrenal cortical tumor

A patient was treated for peptic ulcer with an H. pylori regimen. Which of the following is used to assess the success of treatment?

A. Endoscopy
B. IgG antibody study
C. Urea breath test
D. Urease test of biopsy

Identify the true statement/s regarding clear cell carcinoma of the kidney.

A. Least common sporadic renal tumour
B. Associated with loss of long arm of chromosome 3
C. Arises from distal convoluted tubule
D. Cells show intracellular accumulation of glycogen and fat

Hamman sign is seen in

A. Pneumoperitoneum
B. Pneumopericardium
C. Pneumomediastinum
D. Hydropneumothorax

The phenomenon of a differential effect of the same gene from different parents is called:

A. Gonadal mosaicism
B. Genomic imprinting
C. Anticipation
D. Incomplete penetrance

Which of the following statements is true about optic neuritis?

A. The relative afferent pupillary defect is seen
B. There is no pain in ocular movement
C. Multiple myeloma is a common cause
D. Oral corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment

The most common ocular manifestation of COVID 19 is

A. Uveitis
B. Mucormycosis
C. Follicular conjunctivitis
D. Papillary conjunctivitis

A 15-year-old boy presents with swelling in the upper diaphyseal part of the tibia. X ray of the swelling showed a periosteal reaction. Immunohistochemistry was positive for synaptophysin and mic 2. What is the likely diagnosis?

A. Osteosarcoma
B. Ewing sarcoma
C. Metastatic neuroblastoma
D. Osteocloastoma

A and B in the graph below represent which of the following ions, in terms of permeability for action potential generation?

A. A is Na+, B is K+
B. A is Na+, B is Ca2+
C. A is K+, B is Ca2+
D. A is Ca2+, B is K+

The given image shows a normal graph on the left(A) and the patient’s graph on the right(B). Which of the following diagnosis can be inferred from the graph for B?

A. Chest wall neuromuscular disease
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
D. Bronchiectasis

Which of the following is not a part of innate immunity?

A. Alpha defensins
B. B lymphocytes
C. Gamma Delta T lymphocytes
D. Lectin pathway

In which of the following is atropine contraindicated?

A. Acute congestive glaucoma
B. Acute anterior uveitis
C. Malignant glaucoma
D. Corneal ulcer

Arrange the following steps of ventricular action potential in the correct order.

A. Opening of voltage-gated calcium channels
B. Repolarizing K+ currents
C. Opening of voltage – gated sodium channels
D. Transient outward flow of potassium

A. B, A, C, D
B. D, C, B, A
C. C, D, A, B
D. A, B, C, D

Which of the following disorders is inherited in an X-linked dominant pattern?

A. Rett syndromes
B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
C. Huntington’s disease
D. Tuberous sclerosis

Cell in cell appearance is seen in:

A. Necrosis
B. Apoptosis
C. Necroptosis
D. Entosis

How is cerebral perfusion pressure calculated?

A. Systolic blood pressure + Intracranial pressure
B. Systolic blood pressure – intracranial pressure
C. Mean arterial pressure/intracranial pressure
D. Mean arterial pressure – intracranial pressure

Match the malignancies in column A with the genes in column B.

Column A Column B
1. Pleomorphic adenoma a. Rb
2. Burkitt lymphoma b. nMyc
3. Neuroblastoma c. cMyc
4. Retinoblastoma d. plag 1

A. 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
B. 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
C. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
D. 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a

2, 3-BPG causes the unloading of oxygen to tissues by:

A. Increasing ATP production
B. Binding to the beta subunit of Hb
C. Inhibiting taut structured
D. Decreasing ATP production

Which of the following are signs of heart failure?

1. Non-pulsatile rise of JVP
2. Orthopnoea
3. Dyspnoea after 2 hours of sleep
4. Right upper quadrant pain/right hypochondrial pain

A. 1 and 2
B. 1,2,3
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,3,4

Which of the following features is not observed in pleomorphic adenoma?

A. Myoepithelial cells
B. Keratin pearls
C. Chondroid differentiation
D. Perineural invasion

What is the value of normal tissue oncotic pressure?

A. 12 mmHg
B. 25 mmHg
C. 32 mmHg
D. 54 mmHg

Match the following stains and the tissue:

1. Prussian blue stain - 1. Iron
2. PAS stain - 2. Glycogen
3. Congo red stain - 3. Leprosy
4. File-Faraco stain - 4. Amyloid

A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
B. 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-d
C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
D. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d

The second phase of saliva secretion involves:

A. Active Na+ reabsorption, passive Cl- reabsorption, passive K+ secretion, active secretion of HCO3
B. Passive Na+ reabsorption, active Cl- reabsorption, passive K+ secretion, active secretion of HCO3-
C. Passive Na+ secretion, active Cl- reabsorption, active K+ secretion, passive secretion of HCO3-
D. Active Na+ reabsorption, passive Cl- reabsorption, active K+ secretion, passive secretion of HCO3-

Which of the following are true regarding sirtuins?

1. Increases insulin sensitivity and thus glucose metabolism
2. Promotes genes that increase longevity
3. They are of 7 types
4. They are one of the types of histone deacetylases

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,3,4
C. 2,3
D. 2,4

A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia started on risperidone. After taking the medication last night, the patient rushed to OPD today, complaining of upward rolling of his eyes. What is the management of the condition?

A. Lorazepam
B. Promethazine
C. Olanzapine
D. Stop antipsychotic

Which of the following diseases is exclusively seen in females?

A. Rett syndrome
B. Asperger syndrome
C. Selective mutism
D. Atypical autism

Match the following cells with their locations:
1. Kupffer cells
2. Parietal cells
3. Dust cells
4. Clara cells
a. Stomach
b. Liver
c. Alveoli
d. Bronchioles

A. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
B. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
C. 1-d, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
D. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d

Which of the following cytokines is not involved in Th1 response?

A. IFN gamma
B. IL-2
C. IL-12
D. IL-4

A patient has presented for a routine eye evaluation. You have checked his visual acuity using Snellen’s chart and found it to be 6/6. What is the minimum angle of resolution?

A. 15 minutes of arc
B. 5 minutes of arc
C. 10 minutes of arc
D. 20 minutes of arc

A patient who is a chronic alcoholic presents with seizures and altered sensorium. He has been drinking for the past 10 years and takes 24 units per day. His last drink was 2 days back. He is found to have auditory hallucinations and secondary delusions. What will you use for the management of this patient?

A. Diazepam
B. Thiamine
C. Naltrexone
D. both A and B

Match the following:
1. Eonism
2. Exhibitionism
3. Frotteurism
4. Necrophilia
a. Exposure of one’s genitals to an unsuspecting stranger
b. Sexual gratification by intercourse with dead bodies
c. Sexual pleasure by wearing clothes of the opposite sex
d. Sexual gratification by rubbing private parts against another person

A. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
B. 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
C. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
D. 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A

Macula densa is made of specialized cells located at:

A. Junction of thick descending limb and DCT
B. Junction of thick descending limb and PCT
C. Junction of thick ascending limb and DCT
D. Junction of DCT and collecting duct

A pregnant mother was on SSRIs. The risk of which of the following is increased in the newborn?

A. Low APGAR score
B. ADHD
C. Persistent pulmonary hypertension
D. All of the above

A chronic smoker with a smoking history of 24 packs presents with breathlessness and chest pain. Further investigations revealed the presence of a lung tumor. On staining, cells are positive for chromogranin. What is the diagnosis?

A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Large cell carcinoma
D. Small cell carcinoma

Which of the following is not a feature of complicated cataracts?

A. Krukenberg spindle
B. Polychromatic lusture
C. Occurs after uveitis
D. Breadcrumb appearance

The given peripheral smear is associated with which of the following leukemias?

A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
C. Acute myeloid leukemia
D. Chronic myelogenous leukemia

Which of the following can be used to calculate cardiac output?

A. ECHO
B. Fick’s principle
C. Thermodilution
D. All of the above

An elderly lady presents with abdominal pain and distension. She has a history of scoliosis. Given below is the erect X-ray abdomen radiograph of the lady. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Large bowel obstruction due to sigmoid volvulus
B. Large bowel obstruction due to fecolith
C. Cecal volvulus
D. Small bowel obstruction due to bowel perforation

Oculocephalic reflex assesses the integrity of which of the following cranial nerves?

A. 3,6,8
B. 4,6,7
C. 4,7
D. 3,6,7
E. 2,6,8

Match the following:

1. Football sign

2. String sign

3. Rat tail sign

4. Inverted umbrella sign

a. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

b. Achalasia cardia

c. Ileocecal TB

d. Pneumoperitoneum

A. 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
B. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d
C. 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c
D. 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c

Whole-body CT scan protocol for a trauma patient includes all, except ………..

A. CT Head
B. CT Cervical spine
C. CT Limbs
D. CT Abdomen

Egg shell calcification is seen in all the following except………

A. Silicosis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Post radiation therapy lymph nodes
D. Metastatic lymph nodes

5-year old Ram and 3-year old Sham are Rama Devi’s sons. Sham developed a rash, but Rama Devi ignored it, assuming it to be an allergy. After 10 days, Ram also developed a rash along with a fever. Out of fear, Rama Devi took Ram to the primary health center (PHC). The healthcare workers at the PHC suspected it to be measles. Choose incorrect option from among the following:

A. Ram is an index case.
B. Sham is a primary case
C. Ram got the infection from Sham
D. Ram could’ve got post-exposure prophylaxis if the mother had brought him along to the hospital when Sham got the rash.
E. None

A 55-year-old man presents with hematuria and a mass in the left kidney on a CECT scan, as shown below. What is the diagnosis?

A. Renal angiomyolipoma
B. Renal oncocytoma
C. Renal cell carcinoma
D. Renal cyst

Which alternative to breast milk in low birth weight (LBW) children can be used?

A. Cow's milk
B. Preterm formula
C. Term formula
D. Human donor milk

A 4-year-old male child with a body weight of 15 kg and height of 100 cm is admitted with renal failure. His blood urea was 100 mg/dL, and serum creatinine was 1 mg/dL. What is the closest calculated eGFR in the patient?

A. 33 ml/min/1.73 m2 BSA
B. 40 ml/min/1.73 m2 BSA
C. 55 ml/min/1.73 m2 BSA
D. 80 ml/min/1.73 m2 BSA

Which of the following is not true regarding children’s urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

A. Most common cause of UTI is Streptococcus pneumoniae.
B. Bowel bladder dysfunction increases the risk of recurrence.
C. Cotrimoxazole is given.
D. Micturating cystourethrogram (MCU) is done in children with a recurrence of UTI.

Sagar was being tried in a court for the murder of Mohan in the park. Shikhar appeared in court and said he saw Sagar carrying a knife in his hand while in the park. What is this evidence known as?

A. Direct
B. Indirect
C. Hostile
D. Hearsay

You are measuring a patient’s blood pressure at a primary health center when the sphygmomanometer fell and broke, and mercury was spilled onto the ground. How will you clean the mercury?

A. Collect it by using a card on a sheet of paper and put the mercury into a jar
B. Collect it by sweeping it with a broom and throwing outside
C. Collect it by sweeping it and flush it in the toilet
D. Collect it by hand and then wash hands with water

A child presents with acute exacerbation of asthma. Which of the following would you not do?

A. Chest X-ray
B. Oxygen administration
C. Salbutamol nebulization three times in 60 minutes
D. Administration of oral theophyline

What is the branch of statistics dealing with describing the internal collection of data?

A. Theoretical statistics
B. Descriptive statistics
C. Analytical statistics
D. Inferential statistics

Identify the true statement regarding split skin and full-thickness skin grafts:

A. Primary contractures are more in split skin grafts
B. Secondary contractures are more in split skin grafts
C. Primary contractures are equal in full-thickness grafts and Split skin grafts
D. Secondary contracture is more in full-thickness grafts

Isolation in a separate room is mandatory for which of the following air-borne infections?

A. Measles
B. Rabies
C. Nipah
D. Aseptic meningitis

A male patient was presented with a history of consumption of an unknown substance. He had increased sweating, lacrimation, diarrhea, muscle weakness, and tachycardia. What's the management?

A. Atropine
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Pralidoxime
D. Obidoxime

False statement regarding rabies immunoglobulin is?

A. It is exclusively given in the deltoid
B. The dose is 20 IU/kg
C. Not given after 7 days
D. If human RIG is unavailable, equine is preferred

Which of the following causes maximum malnutrition?

A. Pancreatic fistula
B. Duodenal fistula
C. Distal ileal fistula
D. Colonic fistula

Which of the following are seen in patients with chronic arsenic poisoning?
1. Raindrop pigmentation 2. Peripheral neuritis 3. Mees line 4. Luminous vomit

A. 1,2,3 are correct
B. 2,3 are correct
C. 1,4 are correct
D. Only 1 is correct

Which of the following increase the risk of recurrence of febrile seizures?
1. Age less than 1 year
2. Temperature of 38-39°C
3. Duration of fever less than 24 h
4. Duration of fever more 48 h

A. 1, 2, 4
B. 1, 4
C. 1, 2, 3
D. 1, 3, 4

A point–of–care diagnostic test with a sensitivity of 98% shows a negative test result in a patient. What does this imply?

A. The patient would need another point–of–care diagnostic test for the same clinical condition
B. The prevalence of the disease is 2%.
C. The patient is less likely to have the disease
D. The patient has been wrongly ruled out due to false negatives

Assertion: In phenylketonuria, the urine has a mousy odor.
Reason: The serum levels of tyrosine, dopamine, and norepinephrine decrease in phenylketonuria.

A. Both assertion and reason are independently false statements.
B. The assertion is a true statement, but the reason is a false statement.
C. Both assertion and reason are independently true statements, but the reason is not the correct explanation for the assertion.
D. Both assertion and reason are independently true statements, and the reason is the correct explanation for the assertion.

Which investigation is not necessary for Achalasia?

A. Timed barium study
B. Endoscopy
C. Esophageal manometry
D. 24-h pH monitoring

A child with thalassemia is undergoing multiple blood transfusions. What is the best method to detect iron overload?

A. Liver iron concentration
B. MRI T2 myocardium
C. Serum ferritin
D. NTBI

Attributable risk calculated to understand the relation between smoking and lung cancer is 90%. Which of the following is true?

A. 10% of lung cancers in smokers is not associated with smoking
B. 90% cases of lung cancer can be eliminated in population if smoking is eliminated
C. 90% cases of lung cancer can be eliminated in smokers if smoking is eliminated
D. 10% cases of lung cancer can be eliminated in population if smoking is eliminated

The image given below is a type of

A. Contusion
B. Abrasion
C. Laceration
D. Stab wound

A patient developed a loss of sensations over the root of the penis following open hernia surgery. Which of the following nerves would you implicate?

A. Iliohypogastric nerve
B. Ilioinguinal nerve
C. Genitofemoral nerve
D. Medial cutaneous nerve to thigh

Which of the following statements about Psoas abscess are true?
1. Fluctuant swelling in the hip
2. Cold abscess can develop from Pott’s abscess
3. Pain on passive extension of hip joint is seen
4. It develops more commonly through hematogenous route in immunocompromised patients and elderly

A. 1 and 2
B. 1,3 and 4
C. 1,2,3 and 4
D. 2,3 and 4

A child presents with cold feet and a history of wearing socks even in the summers. On examination, lower limb pulses are diminished compared to the radial pulse. Prominent radio-femoral delay is present. What is the underlying condition?

A. There is hypertrophy of ductus arteriosus.
B. Coarctation distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery
C. Supply is from the posterior to the anterior thoracic artery.
D. Collaterals develop to supply the upper limb.

Match the following:

Permanent Tooth Age of eruption

A. Canine 1. 6-7 years

B. Lateral incisor 2. 8-9 years

C. First molar 3. 11-12 years

D. Third molar 4. 17-25 years

A. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
B. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
C. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
D. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

Which of the following statements are true regarding cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection?
1. Neonates who are asymptomatic at birth have a lesser risk of later sequelae.
2. 20-40% are symptomatic at birth.
3. In developing countries, the transmission rate of CMV infection to the infant is more common from primary maternal infection than reactivation.
4. Diagnosis by urine specimen at 4 weeks of age

A. 3, 4
B. 1, 2
C. 2, 4
D. 1, 3

Spanish windlass is a type of which strangulation method?

A. Bansdola
B. Garrotting
C. Mugging
D. Throttling

A 25-year-old lady had an uneventful vaginal delivery. On postpartum day 1, she presented with postpartum hemorrhage and complains of visual changes and severe headache. A few hours after the complaint, she is found to be in an unresponsive state and is intubated and put on ventilation. On further examination, she has a BP of 60/40 mmHg and tachycardia, blood sugar is 48 mg/dL. Hematocrit and WBC count was normal. Which of the following drugs would help reverse this state?

A. Inj. dobutamine
B. Steroids
C. Thyroxine
D. Activated protein C

Following an earthquake, the building codes were changed to earthquake-resistant buildings. Which of the following steps of disaster management does this fall under?

A. Disaster response
B. Disaster reconstruction
C. Disaster rehabilitation
D. Disaster mitigation

Which of the following statements regarding MgSO4 is false?

A. MgSO4 causes uterine relaxation, but is dose dependent
B. MgSO4 is continued upto 24 hours after delivery or last attack of seizure
C. It has an inhibitory effect on cerebral cortex thereby preventing seizures and lowering the BP
D. In renal failure, MgSO4 loading dose can be given, but maintenance dose should be adjusted based on renal function

All of the following are theories of causation of preeclampsia except:

A. Prostaglandins play an important role. Thromboxane A2 decreases; Prostacyclin: Thromboxane ratio increases in preeclampsia
B. Endothelial cell dysfunction leads to reduced nitric oxide levels and this causes the clinical presentation of preeclampsia
C. Vasoconstriction leads to ischemia, necrosis and hemorrhage and end-organ damage seen in preeclampsia
D. Anti-angiogenic factors play an important role in preeclampsia. There is an increase in sFlt-1 and decrease in PIGF

Anterior dislocation of the shoulder is likely to result in the damage of which of the following nerves?

A. Axillary nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Suprascapular nerve

Which of the following cerclage procedures would be done in a nonpregnant female?

A. Lash and Lash cerclage
B. Benson and Durfee cerclage
C. Wurms cerclages
D. Laparoscopic cerclage

A 34-year-old woman was brought to the AIIMS emergency following a road traffic accident. She was hemodynamically stable and her GCS score was 3. She was intubated and sent for non-contrast CT which was found to be normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Subdural hemorrhage
B. Extradural hemorrhage
C. Diffuse axonal injury
D. Cerebral contusion

Urinary tract infection in a pregnant lady in her 2nd trimester is best defined as:

A. Growth of 10^3 coliform in suprapubic sample
B. Growth of 10^5 coliform in voided urine sample
C. Frequency with dysuria with >3 WBC/ HPF
D. Frequency with dysuria with positive nitrite and leukoesterase dipstick test

Which of the following is incorrect regarding the innervation of the uterus?

A. Sensory level is from T10 to L1
B. Uterine contractility is mediated by innervations from level T7-T8
C. In the 1st stage of labor, pain is due to the fibers at level of T10-L1
D. In early labor, pain is usually because of the uterine contraction

A 60-year-old patient presents with limping gait and left hip pain. What is the likely diagnosis?

A. Tuberculosis of the hip
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Ankylosing spondylitis
D. Avascular necrosis

Which of the following statement regarding drugs used in anti-tubercular treatment is true?

A. Isoniazid inhibits mycolic acid degradation
B. Pyrazinamide is an enzyme inducer
C. Rifampicin is used only in the treatment of tuberculosis
D. Bedaquiline inhibits ATP synthase

Modified biophysical profile includes:

A. NST and fetal tone
B. NST and AFI
C. NST and breathing movements
D. NST and gross fetal movements

A 72-year-old man came with complaints of unilateral knee pain. X-ray examination showed reduced joint space. Pathological findings shown below are of:

A. Osteoarthritis
B. Tuberculosis of the knee
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Lyme disease

A 30-year-old male patient presents with a pelvic fracture following blunt abdominal trauma. No blood is seen at the meatus. Catheterization does not produce significant urine output. The radiological image shows spillage of contrast. What is the next step in management?

A. Suprapubic cystostomy
B. Per Urethral catheterization
C. Laparotomy
D. Pelvic packing along with B/L percutaneous nephrostomy

All are long-term reversible methods of contraception, except:

A. Progestin injection
B. Progestin implants
C. Female sterilization
D. Levonorgestrel-releasing and copper-containing intrauterine devices

You visit a newborn near your house and notice that the baby has CTEV. When would you advise the baby's parents for a consultation to put on a cast?

A. 1 month
B. In 6 months
C. In a few days
D. When the child starts walking

Match the following stages with their relevant descriptions.
1. Pre-pathogenesis
2. Pathogenesis
3. Natural history of a disease
4. Rehabilitation

a. Normal course without any intervention
b. Appearance of clinical signs and symptoms
c. Reaching normalcy with the help of the community
d. Period before the onset of the disease

A. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-d
B. 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c
C. 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-d
D. 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b

Identify the wrong statement regarding the period of gestation calculation:

A. 1st-trimester USG is the best assessment
B. Calculated from the last day of the last menstrual period
C. In an IVF pregnancy, day of embryo transfer/day of fertilization is needed to calculate POG
D. Crown-rump length is the best measure of the period of gestation in the first trimester

Contraceptive failure is assessed using which of the following methods?

A. Pharmacological index
B. Pearl index
C. Performance index
D. Efficacy index

Which of the following patients would be classified as having primary amenorrhea?

A. 11-year-old girl with Tanner stage 1 breasts
B. 14-year-old girl with Tanner stage 1 breasts
C. 13-year-old girl with Tanner stage 5 breasts
D. 12-year-old with Tanner stage 4 breasts

Identify the formula given below:

A. Standard deviation
B. Standard error
C. Median
D. Variance

The daughter of a woman who received diethylstilbestrol during her pregnancy is at higher risk for:

A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Clear cell carcinoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Sarcoma botryoides

A child presents with a dog bite from a street dog. On examination, an abrasion of 1.5 cm is present, with slight oozing. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A. Category 3 would
B. Wash the wound with normal tap water for 15-20 minutes
C. Clean the wound with spirit
D. Loose suturing of the wound with a proper dressing

Which of the following would be the most commonly encountered ectopic tissue in Meckel’s diverticulum?

A. Gastric and pancreatic
B. Colonic and pancreatic
C. Gastric and colonic
D. Thyroid and lung

Water from a broken septic tank is collected in a container and breeding mosquitoes are seen. The image of the larva is given below. Identify the species of the mosquito.

A. Anopheles
B. Aedes
C. Mansonia
D. Culex

All are causes of uterine dysfunction, except:

A. High fetal head station
B. Multiparity
C. Neuraxial block
D. Chorioamnionitis

The drug shown in the image (artesunate) below is administered for:

A. Malaria
B. Dengue
C. Sexually transmitted infections
D. AIDS

Antepartum hemorrhage due to abruption shows all except:

A. Uterine tenderness
B. Frequent contractions
C. Painless vaginal bleeding
D. Mild to moderate vaginal bleeding

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptive pills?

A. History of deep vein thrombosis
B. History of migraine without aura
C. Controlled hypertension
D. Non-smoker women above the age of 35

A 25-year-old woman presents with a breast lump, no skin changes, and no indurations. On histology, there was a fibroadenoma appearance. Which of the following categories does it fall under?

A: BIRADS 1 and 2
B: BIRADS 2 or 4
C: BIRADS 2,3,4
D: BIRADS 2

A woman presents at 8 weeks of gestation. Which of the following signs can be elicited at this gestation?
1. Goodell's sign 2. Osiander's sign 3. Internal ballottement 4. Lightening

A: 1,3
B: 1,2
C: 1,4
D: 3,4

A patient who had undergone appendicectomy 2 days ago presents with severe abdominal pain. On exploration, there is a collection of blood in the abdomen. Which of the following arteries should have been ligated during surgery?

A: Ileocolic artery
B: Right colic artery
C: Superior rectal artery
D: Superior mesenteric artery

The non-contraceptive uses of oral contraceptives include all of the following except:

A: Reduction in the risk of ovarian cancer
B: Ectopic pregnancy
C: Protection against sexually transmitted diseases, including HIV
D: Reduction in the risk of endometrial cancer

A 10-year old child with hereditary spherocytosis and hypersplenism presents to the hospital. A splenectomy is planned for this child. All the following vaccines are recommended before splenectomy except……..

A: Pneumococcal vaccine
B: Typhoid vaccine
C: Haemophilus influenzae B vaccine
D: Meningococcal vaccine

A 16-year-old presents with absent menses. Examination shows widely spaced nipples, webbed neck, and Tanner grade 1 breast development. USG shows streak ovaries. Investigation shows raised FSH, raised LH, and reduced estradiol. What is the diagnosis?

A: Turner syndrome
B: Kallmann syndrome
C: Androgen insensitivity syndrome
D: Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser (MRKH) syndrome

What is true about gall bladder carcinoma?

A: Palpable abdominal lump is the earliest sign
B: Earliest sign is jaundice
C: Clinical presentation of gallstones can be distinguished from gallbladder cancer
D: Median survival is 6 months

Consider the following actions under AMTSL. Arrange them in the right order.
1. Uterine massage
2. Give uterotonic (oxytocin 10 mg)
3. Exclude the presence of another fetus
4. Controlled cord traction

A: 3,1,2,4
B: 3,2,4,1
C: 2,4,3,1
D: 2,4,1,3

An old lady sustained a fall and developed a headache and neurological symptoms a few days later. What is your diagnosis?

A: Multi-infarct dementia
B: Frontal lobe meningioma
C: Korsakoff disease
D: Subdural hematoma

All of the following are risk factors of vulval cancer except:

A: Vulval dystrophy
B: Vulval hamartoma
C: Smoking
D: Vulval warts

Which of the following is not a part of damage control surgery?

A: Control of hemorrhage
B: Resuscitation
C: Decontamination
D: Vascular anastomosis

What is vagitus uterinus?

A: Cry of baby in the womb
B: Infection of vagina
C: Infection of uterus
D: Infection of both vagina and uterus

Identify the correct statement regarding gastric carcinoma:
A. It is mostly hereditary
B. E-cadherin adhesion defect is seen in diffuse type of gastric CA.
C. Wnt signaling pathway defect is seen in intestinal – type gastric CA.
D. Depth of cancer has no role in prognosis.

A: A,C,D
B: B,C
C: B,C,D
D: A,D

A female patient presents with a lump in her breast. All the following can be used to rule out malignancy, except

A: Radiological investigations
B: PET scan
C: Clinical examination
D: Histology and cytology

Match the following: A. Marjolin ulcer over the dorsum of foot measuring 3cm x 2cm
B. 1.5 cm cervical lymph node in the neck
C. Soft tissue sarcoma over mid-thigh
D. Solitary thyroid nodule
1. Excision biopsy
2. Core needle biopsy
3. USG guided FNAC
4. Wedge biopsy

A: A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
B: A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
C: A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
D: A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Which of the following is true regarding shock?

A: Anaerobic respiration produces carbon dioxide
B: Low pH mainly activates lysosomal enzymes
C: Peripheral vasoconstriction
D: Renal perfusion is maintained

A patient presents with multiple stab injuries to the chest. On examination, there is reduced chest movement on the right side and tracheal deviation to the left side. Additionally, the neck veins are distended. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?

A: Resuscitative thoracotomy
B: ICD placement
C: Needle thoracocentesis
D: Finger thoracotomy

A patient presented with large intra-abdominal fluid accumulation and was found to have pancreatic necrosis. Which of the following are included in the management of the condition?
1. Antibiotics IV 2. IV fluids 3. Culture 4. MRI 5. Assisted drainage 6. Laparotomy

A: 1,2,3, and 5
B: 1,3,4,5
C: 3,4,5
D: 1,2,4,5

A 65-year-old man presents with progressive dyspnea, fatigue, and swelling of the ankles. On examination, there is bilateral lower limb edema, an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP), and an S3 gallop. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A: Congestive heart failure
B: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
C: Pulmonary embolism
D: Deep vein thrombosis

Which of the following is the most important step in the management of a patient presenting with acute appendicitis?

A: Administration of antibiotics
B: Appendectomy
C: Pain control
D: Intravenous fluids

A 45-year-old female presents with excessive thirst, polyuria, and weight loss. Her blood glucose level is 350 mg/dL, and a urine dipstick reveals ketones. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A: Type 1 diabetes mellitus
B: Type 2 diabetes mellitus
C: Diabetic ketoacidosis
D: Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state

Match the following
A. Nylon 3-0 1. Bowel anastomosis
B. Polyglactin 2. Suturing linea alba in the midline
C. Polypropylene 1-0 3. Midline laparotomy skin wound closure
D. Polypropylene 2-0 4. Fixing mesh in hernia surgery

A: A4, B1, C4, D2
B: A3, B1, C4, D2
C: A3, B1, C2, D4
D: A1, B4, C3, D4

Flash