INICET NOV 2021

INICET November 2021 questions

A 42 year old COVID-19 positive man under home isolation develops breathing difficulty. On arrival, SpO₂ is 86%. After oxygen via face mask with reservoir bag at 10 L/min for 1 hour, SpO₂ is 88%. What is the next step?

A. High-flow nasal cannula oxygen therapy
B. Endotracheal intubation
C. No specific intervention necessary
D. Increase flow rate to 15 L/min

A 26-year-old male has a painless, large, firm right testicular swelling with AFP of 3000U. What is the next best step in management?

A. Repeat tumor markers
B. Scrotal true cut biopsy
C. FNAC
D. High inguinal orchidectomy

What is the most common cause for hospital admission after daycare surgery?

A. Post-surgical pain
B. Postoperative nausea and vomiting
C. Bleeding
D. Respiratory distress

Which of the following branches arise from the anterior division of internal iliac artery?

A. 1,2,3,5
B. 2,3,4,5,6
C. 1,4,5,6
D. 2,3,4,6

A 20-year-old cyclist with perineal bruise and blood at meatus, unable to pass urine. Bladder not palpable. What is the next step?

A. Wait for bladder to fill and urge to urinate
B. Immediate insertion of Foley's catheter
C. Suprapubic aspiration of urine
D. Wait and send him home

What is the frequency of tetanic stimulation used in neuromuscular monitoring?

A. 0.2 Hz
B. 2 Hz
C. 20 Hz
D. 50 Hz

What is the maximum oxygen flow rate that can be given with a conventional oxygen mask?

A. 5 L/min
B. 10 L/min
C. 20 L/min
D. 15 L/min

Following minor trauma with wood piece 20 days ago, a man develops facial swelling and orbital edema. CT scan clear sinuses, microscopy PAS-positive. Diagnosis?

A. Phycomycosis
B. IgG4 granuloma
C. Foreign body granuloma
D. Midline lethal granuloma

What is the gauge size of a commonly used cannula in surgical practice?

A. 16
B. 18
C. 14
D. 20

A lady with abdominal pain, USG shows gallstones, CBD 12mm, bilirubin 0.8. ALP and GGT are raised. Next best step?

A. MRCP
B. ERCP
C. Endoscopic ultrasound
D. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

All of the following are major diagnostic criteria for allergic fungal sinusitis except:

A. Positive fungal culture
B. Presence of nasal polyps
C. Characteristic CT findings
D. Eosinophilic mucin without invasion

What is the effect of RNA interference (RNAi) on gene expression?

A. Knock up
B. Knock down
C. Knock in
D. Knock out

A 65-year-old presents with right-sided nasal obstruction and occasional blood-stained discharge. CT and endoscopy findings suggest:

A. Inverted papilloma
B. Carcinoma maxilla
C. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma
D. Esthesioneuroblastoma

Cytochrome oxidase is inhibited in all of the following poisonings except:

A. Hydrogen sulfide
B. Methane
C. Cyanide
D. Carbon monoxide

A man with stab injury over the arm has absent radial and ulnar pulses with brachial artery tear. Best treatment option?

A. Repair with great saphenous vein graft
B. Primary repair with end-to-end anastomosis
C. Repair with prosthetic graft
D. Repair with saphenous vein patch

Insulin inhibits which of the following lipase enzymes?

A. Hormone sensitive lipase
B. Pancreatic lipase
C. Gastric lipase
D. Lipoprotein lipase

Arrange the following in the correct order of symptomatology seen in iron toxicity:

A. 2,3,1,4
B. 3,2,4,1
C. 3,4,1,2
D. 2,3,4,1

What are the main substrate and metabolic fuel used by RBCs during fasting?

A. Free fatty acids
B. Amino acids
C. Glucose
D. Ketone bodies

In a chest trauma case, which of the following is contraindicated?

A. Nasogastric tube insertion
B. Epidural anaesthesia
C. Chest tube insertion
D. Log roll

The method of restraint with wrists and ankles tied behind the back is known as:

A. Hog tie
B. Choke/ carotid hold
C. Bar arm
D. Carotid steeper hold

Which of the following diagnostic markers is incorrectly paired?

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2,3 and 4
D. 1,2 and 4

Maximum flow rate of fluid with the IV cannula shown is:

A. 103 ml/min
B. 63 ml/min
C. 86 ml/min
D. 96 ml/min

Most common cause of bladder outlet obstruction in a male child:

A. Posterior urethral valve
B. Anterior urethral valve
C. Urethral atresia
D. Ureterocele

Which nutrient assimilation consumes the highest energy?

A. Polyunsaturated fatty acids
B. Proteins
C. Carbohydrates
D. Mono-unsaturated fatty acids

Which statements about colon cancer are true?

A. 1,2,3 and 4 only
B. 1,2 and 3 only
C. 2,3 and 4 only
D. 2 and 4 only

Match the following with their respective ages of fusion:

A. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
B. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
C. A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
D. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

Frozen section during surgery for carcinoma breast is useful for all except:

A. To know margin positivity
B. To know sentinel lymph node
C. To confirm definitive diagnosis immediately in all cases
D. To know metastasis

Which is the best method to detect HbA1c?

A. Ion-exchange chromatography
B. Electrophoresis
C. Affinity chromatography
D. Immunoassay

Which of the following are part of Reynold’s pentad?

A. 1,2,3,4
B. 2,3,4,5
C. 1,2,4,5
D. 1,3,4,5

Which of the following is associated with a defect in collagen maturity?

A. Scurvy
B. Beriberi
C. Night blindness
D. Rickets

The following drain is placed after mastectomy. Identify the type of drain.

A. Semi open
B. Open
C. Semi closed
D. Closed

Consider the following about hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) and choose the correct statements.

A. 2,3,4
B. 1 and 2
C. 1,2,3
D. 1,3,4

A 56-year-old patient with obstructive jaundice shows distended gall bladder and dilated bile ducts. Which investigation will best localize the cause?

A. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
B. Magnetic resonance imaging
C. Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography
D. Endoscopic ultrasound

Which of the following is the best test for quantitative analysis of an RNA sample?

A. Real-time PCR
B. RTPCR followed by real-time PCR
C. PCR-restriction fragment length polymorphism
D. Reverse transcriptase PCR

All of the following are lower urinary tract symptoms except:

A. Sudden urge to urinate
B. Incontinence during intercourse
C. Incontinence when patient lies down and coughs
D. Incontinence while asleep

A pelvis is brought for forensic examination. Which of the following characteristics identify it as male?

A. 2,3,4,5
B. Only 5
C. 4,5,6
D. 1 and 3

Which statements are true about mitochondrial DNA?

A. 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 2

A patient with thiamine deficiency develops lactic acidosis. Which enzyme is affected?

A. Pyruvate carboxylase
B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
C. Transketolase
D. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase

Identify the condition in the given image.

A. Medial rectus palsy
B. Trochlear nerve palsy
C. Abducens nerve palsy
D. Oculomotor nerve palsy

Match the following in relation to fingerprint changes:

A. 1-e, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a, 5-d
B. 1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-e, 5-a
C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b, 5-e
D. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-e, 5-b

What is the most common tumor of the lacrimal gland?

A. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
B. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
C. Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma
D. Pleomorphic adenoma

A patient presents with genital lesions. Scrapings from the lesion would show:

A. Tzanck cells
B. Molluscum bodies
C. HP bodies
D. Cells with clear halo around nucleus

What type of MRI image is given below?

A. Gradient echo image
B. Susceptibility weighted image
C. Proton density image
D. Inversion recovery image

The most specific and typical sign of juvenile dermatomyositis in a 17-year-old patient is:

A. Photosensitive skin rash
B. Nail bed capillary changes
C. Gottron’s papules
D. Malar rash

The given image shows a feature of which type of leprosy?

A. Lepromatous leprosy
B. Borderline lepromatous leprosy
C. Borderline leprosy
D. Histoid leprosy

The most common ocular manifestation of COVID-19 is:

A. Follicular conjunctivitis
B. Pseudomembranous conjunctivitis
C. Viral keratouveitis
D. A retinal vein thrombosis

A patient with angle closure glaucoma and major depressive disorder should avoid which drug?

A. Amitriptyline
B. Sertraline
C. Mirtazapine
D. Fluvoxamine

A 65-year-old man with itchy tense bullae likely has:

A. Bullous pemphigoid
B. Dermatitis herpetiformis
C. Linear IgA dermatosis
D. Pemphigus vulgaris

Patient unable to see lateral fields has lesion most likely at:

A. Optic chiasma
B. Optic radiation
C. Occipital lobe
D. Optic tract

A hypopigmented lesion without nerve thickening after history of fever in childhood suggests:

A. Tuberculoid leprosy
B. Post kala-azar dermal leishmaniasis
C. Mycosis fungoides
D. Lepromatous leprosy

Regarding leprosy healing if untreated, which is correct?

A. No spontaneous remission
B. Spontaneous remission commoner in children
C. Half cases resolve after bacilli exposure
D. Indeterminate leprosy has more remission than tuberculoid

Clinical image showing a mass through the posterior fornix most likely indicates:

A. Uterocervical prolapse
B. Fibroid polyp
C. Uterine inversion
D. Cervical carcinoma

Match the following regarding depression, suicide, burnout, and overworking:

A. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
B. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
C. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
D. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

Next best step for a 5x5 cm ovarian cyst in a 26-year-old woman?

A. Follow up after 6 weeks
B. Laparoscopy
C. CT pelvis
D. Measure CA-125

Match the following regarding twilight state, oneiroid state, oligophrenia, paranoid ideation:

A. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
B. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
C. A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
D. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

Which is not included in the quadruple screening test?

A. Inhibin B
B. AFP
C. hCG
D. Unconjugated estriol (E3)

Neonate with bilateral conjunctivitis and lung infiltrates is most likely infected by:

A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Mycoplasma
C. Hemophilus influenzae
D. Streptococcus

Mechanism of scalp laceration wound over forehead is:

A. Shearing force
B. Overstretching
C. Semi-sharp impact
D. Tissue crushed between weapon and bone

Fixative used for pap smear is:

A. 95% ethanol
B. Normal saline
C. Air dried
D. Formalin

True statement about OCD:

A. Depression is a common comorbidity
B. Contamination is an uncommon obsession
C. Prevalence is 7-10%
D. Atypical antipsychotics are first-line

Which of the following rules are used in case as tests of insanity?

A. Curren’s rule and Murphy’s rule
B. Ashley’s rule and Murphy’s rule
C. Durham’s rule and Curren’s rule
D. All of the above

A 15-year-old boy post-MVC has hip pain. X-ray is given. What is the next step in management?

A. CT pelvis with 3D reconstruction
B. Open reduction and reconstruction
C. High weight skeletal traction
D. Closed reduction and assessment of hip stability

What should be the ideal percentage for normal sperm morphology in seminal fluid analysis?

A. 4%
B. 10%
C. 6%
D. 8%

Which of the following statements are true about open fractures?

A. 1 and 4
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

Which of the following statements is true?

A. Sensitivity depends on prevalence
B. Positive predictive value depends on prevalence
C. Specificity depends on prevalence
D. Highly sensitive test means true positive in low prevalence

Match the following fractures with their sites:

A. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
B. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
C. A-4, B-2, C-4, D-3
D. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

Blast injuries showing multiple puncture wounds are due to:

A. Blast of air
B. Flying missiles
C. Explosion burns
D. Building collapse

18-year-old girl with amenorrhoea and 5-alpha reductase deficiency. Probable diagnosis?

A. True hermaphroditism
B. Concealed sex
C. Female pseudohermaphroditism
D. Male pseudohermaphroditism

Correct sequence for Thomas test is:

A. 3, 6, 2, 5, 4
B. 3, 2, 6, 5, 4
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D. 3, 2, 1, 4, 6

Which complication is specific to Monochorionic twins?

A. Twin to twin transfusion syndrome
B. Polyhydramnios
C. Neural tube defects
D. Selective fetal growth restriction

A 60-year-old woman with Colles' fracture and T-score -2.5. Best treatment?

A. Calcium and Vitamin D
B. Hormone replacement therapy
C. Repeat DEXA after 3 months
D. Alendronate

Match the disorders causing secondary amenorrhoea with lab findings:

A. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
B. 1-A, 2-B, 3-D, 4-C
C. 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
D. 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A

Post-cast tibial fracture patient with pain and loss of sensation over first web space. Next step?

A. Duplex imaging
B. Re-apply cast
C. Measure anterior compartment pressure
D. Analgesics

Match the following tumors with best management:

A. 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c
B. 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b
C. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a
D. 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c

Investigations used to diagnose unicornuate uterus include:

A. Falloposcopy and laparoscopy
B. Laparoscopy and HSG
C. Falloposcopy and HSG
D. Laparoscopy and X-ray

Match the following STI kit colors and their use:
A. Lower abdominal pain
B. Urethral discharge
C. Non herpetic genital ulcer
D. Vaginal discharge

A. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
B. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
C. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
D. A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

A newly diagnosed HIV patient presented with fever, cough and haemoptysis. His sputum showed acid-fast bacilli. What is the appropriate management?

A. Start ATT and then ART after 2 weeks
B. Start ART and ATT simultaneously
C. Start ART if CD4<200
D. Start ART and then ATT after 2 weeks

Human Papillomavirus inactivates the RB gene by which of the following proteins?

A. E6
B. L1
C. E7
D. L2

As per the verbal autopsy report 2010-2013, arrange the most common cause of death among 1-4-year-old children in descending order:

A. 2>1>4>3
B. 4>1>2>3
C. 1>2>4>3
D. 2>1>3>4

A patient presented with sinusitis, ulcerative nasopharyngeal lesions, lung nodules with cavitations, and renal failure. What is the most useful investigation?

A. AFB staining of sputum
B. Test for ANCA
C. Biopsy to show granuloma
D. BAL

According to IADPSG, what is the fasting blood glucose cutoff for diagnosing gestational diabetes mellitus?

A. >95 mg/dL
B. >90 mg/dL
C. >106 mg/dL
D. >92 mg/dL

Mediators involved in the early phase of type 1 hypersensitivity include:

A. 1,2,4,5
B. 2,3,4
C. 1,2,3,4
D. 1,5

In atrial fibrillation, which statements are correct?

A. 1,2,3 and 4 correct
B. 2 and 3 correct
C. 1 and 4 correct
D. 1,2 and 3 correct

A 62-year-old diabetic and hypertensive woman presents with postmenopausal bleeding. What is the next step in evaluation?

A. Endometrial sampling
B. Pap smear
C. Visual inspection with iodine
D. Colposcopy

In the natural history of disease, what does point C denote?

A. Onset of symptoms
B. Usual time of diagnosis
C. Onset of pathological changes
D. Exposure to etiologic agent

Which is NOT a major diagnostic criterion of neuromyelitis optica?

A. Focal epilepsy
B. Area postrema syndrome
C. Optic neuritis
D. Acute myelitis

WHO recommends which intervention during the second stage of labor?

A. Deliver in lithotomy position only
B. Mandatory episiotomy
C. Maintain head in deflexion
D. Manual perineal support and warm compresses

Which disorder does NOT show both hyperkinetic and hypokinetic movements?

A. Wilson’s disease
B. Huntington’s chorea
C. Parkinson’s disease
D. Neurodegeneration with brain iron accumulation

A couple with normal HSG but azoospermia on semen analysis. Which test helps differentiate obstructive vs testicular cause?

A. Serum testosterone levels
B. Serum FSH levels
C. Serum LH levels
D. Testicular biopsy

Which syndrome is associated with hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis with hypertension?

A. Gordon syndrome
B. Liddle syndrome
C. Gitelman syndrome
D. Barter syndrome

Pentavalent vaccine includes which of the following?

A. Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, HBV, Injectable Polio
B. Diphtheria, Pertussis, Typhoid, HBV, Hib
C. Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Haemophilus influenza B, Pneumococcal vaccine
D. Diphtheria, Tetanus, HBV, Haemophilus influenza B, Pertussis

The vacutainer tube is shown in the given image contains:

A. Na-EDTA
B. Trisodium citrate
C. NAF-heparin
D. Clot activator

A patient came with hypoxemia and a normal alveolar-arterial oxygen gradient. What can be the cause?

A. Hypoventilation
B. Alveolar membrane damage
C. Right to left shunt
D. Ventilation/perfusion mismatch

Which of the following is used in treating sideroblastic anemia?

A. Vitamin B12
B. Vitamin B6
C. Iron
D. Vitamin B1

A 17-year-old boy with intussusception had multiple polyps. Identify the lesion on histopathology.

A. Hyperplastic polyp
B. Hamartomatous polyp
C. Tubulovillous adenoma
D. Adenocarcinoma

A homogenous sample had a correlation coefficient of 0.6. What is the total correlation coefficient?

A. Less than 0.6
B. Equal to 0.6
C. More than 0.6
D. Skewed coefficient of 0.6

What is the dose of dexamethasone given for fetal lung maturity?

A. 2 doses of 6 mg given 12 hours apart
B. 2 doses of 12 mg given 24 hours apart
C. 4 doses of 6 mg given 12 hours apart
D. 4 doses of 12 mg given 12 hours apart

Administration of which vaccine is associated with intussusception risk?

A. Rotavirus vaccine
B. Oral Polio vaccine
C. Adenovirus vaccine
D. Measles vaccine

Which of the following emergency contraceptive is used in India?

A. Ulipristal 30 mg
B. Levonorgestrel 1.5 mg
C. Misoprostol 400 mcg
D. Ethinyl estradiol 600 mcg

Identify the given condition.

A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Visceral leishmaniasis
C. Leprosy
D. Mycosis fungoides

The standardized age mortality ratio is an indicator for which of the following?

A. Death rate of a population adjusted to a standard sex distribution
B. Removal of bias due to different age group population in different countries
C. Death rate of a population adjusted to a standard age distribution
D. To eliminate age structure of different countries

A 20-year-old athlete suddenly collapsed while playing. What is the most likely cause of death?

A. Sudden cardiac death due to arrhythmia
B. Sudden cardiac death due to atherosclerosis
C. Sudden cardiac death due to Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
D. Valvular heart disease due to RHD

The external validity of a screening test is related to?

A. Stability
B. Generalizability
C. Objectivity
D. Repeatability

A 17-year-old girl has primary amenorrhea, normal breasts and pubic hair, blind-ending vagina, absent uterus. Diagnosis?

A. Gonadal dysgenesis
B. Turner syndrome
C. Mullerian agenesis
D. Testicular feminization syndrome

Which of the following regarding G6PD deficiency are correct?

A. Only 1 is correct
B. 1 & 2 are correct
C. 2 & 3 are correct
D. 1, 2 & 4 are correct

Over the past few years, there is an increase in the incidence of non-communicable diseases. What is this type of trend called?

A. Periodic
B. Cyclical
C. Secular
D. Seasonal

Match the following germ cell tumors with their markers:

A. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
B. 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
C. 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
D. 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B

In a patient infected with SARS-CoV-2 presenting with ARDS, which layer is affected in lung tissue electron microscopy?

A. C
B. B
C. D
D. A

A child with bilateral proptosis suspected for chloroma. Next investigation of choice?

A. Bone marrow biopsy
B. Platelet count
C. WBC count
D. Flow cytometry

Which components are included in kangaroo mother care?

A. Early discharge, skin-to-skin contact, prevent infection
B. Early discharge, skin-to-skin contact, exclusive breastfeeding
C. Early discharge, exclusive breastfeeding, prevent infection
D. Skin-to-skin contact, exclusive breastfeeding, prevent infection

Best study design to demonstrate the relationship between cause and effect?

A. Clinical trial
B. Case control study
C. Cross-sectional study
D. Cohort study

Histopathological finding of Aschoff body is characteristic of which diagnosis?

A. Granuloma; Sarcoidosis
B. Non-caseating granuloma; Tuberculosis
C. Aschoff body; Rheumatic heart disease
D. Calcification of valve; Mitral stenosis

Arrange causes of neonatal mortality from maximum to least (Verbal Autopsy Report 2010-13):

A. 1>2>4>3
B. 1>2>3>4
C. 4>1>2>3
D. 1>4>2>3

A 60-year-old man with scrotal swelling and ataxia likely has:

A. Non-seminomatous germ cell tumor
B. Hodgkin lymphoma
C. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
D. Glioblastoma multiforme

Which of the following is NOT involved in meta-analysis?

A. Selection
B. Randomization
C. Abstraction
D. Analysis

Gross liver specimen in cirrhosis: What do dark areas represent?

A. White areas represent central hepatocytes
B. Dark areas represent viable liver tissue, white areas represent necrosis
C. Dark areas represent necrosis, white areas represent viable liver
D. Dark areas represent peri-portal hepatocytes

Massive splenomegaly is NOT associated with:

A. Hairy cell leukemia
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Chronic myeloid leukemia
D. Lymphoma

Physiological jaundice in neonates is associated with:

A. Increased indirect bilirubin, increased urobilinogen, absent bilirubin in urine
B. Increased direct bilirubin, absent urobilinogen, absent bilirubin in urine
C. Increased indirect bilirubin, absent urobilinogen, absent bilirubin in urine
D. Increased direct bilirubin, increased urobilinogen, absent bilirubin in urine

In iron deficiency anemia, intracellular regulation involves:

A. Ferritin translation decreased by IRP binding to IRE
B. Ferritin translation increased by IRP binding to IRE
C. Transferrin receptor 1 translation decreased by IRP binding to IRE
D. Transferrin receptor 1 translation unaffected by IRP binding to IRE

Most affected structure in Guillain–Barre syndrome (electron microscopy of nerve fiber)?

A. 2
B. 1
C. 4
D. 3

A 34-year-old man with hypertension is diagnosed with stage 4 chronic kidney disease, with an eGFR of <30. His doctor wants to prescribe a thiazide diuretic. Which of the following can be given?

A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Chlorothiazide
C. Metolazone
D. Chlorthalidone

Which of the following can be given for long term management of obesity?

A. Fenfluramine
B. Liraglutide
C. Sibutramine
D. Metformin

Topiramate is used for:

A. Treatment of Lennox Gastaut syndrome
B. Treatment of dementia
C. Prophylaxis of ADHD
D. Treatment of migraine

Inhaled Nitric oxide is approved for treatment of:

A. Resistant Parkinson’s disease
B. Treatment of resistant migraine
C. Labile hypertension
D. Pulmonary hypertension

Paradoxical bronchoconstriction seen with ipratropium bromide is due to all except:

A. Hypertonic saline
B. Benzalkonium chloride
C. EDTA
D. Prejunctional M2 receptor blockade

The elimination rate constant of a drug is 0.05/hr. What is its half-life?

A. 6.9 hours
B. 20.8 hours
C. 9.8 hours
D. 13.8 hours

Category A, B, C, D, X in drug classification are indicative of which of the following?

A. Dose adjustment in renal failure
B. Cost ratio from cheap to expensive
C. Safety in pregnancy
D. As per safety or therapeutic index

The dose at which dopamine acts on beta 1 receptors is:

A. >20 mcg/kg/min
B. 2-10 mcg/kg/min
C. 10-20 mcg/kg/min
D. <2 mcg/kg/min

Administration of which of the following drugs would increase the bioavailability of saquinavir?

A. Ganciclovir
B. Vitamin C
C. Ritonavir
D. Cimetidine

What is the mechanism of action of cyclosporine?

A. IMP dehydrogenase inhibition
B. Inhibition of calcineurin
C. AMP kinase stimulation
D. Dihydro-orotate dehydrogenase inhibition

Which of the following is not involved in renal auto-regulation?

A. Myogenic reflex
B. Renal sympathetic system fibers
C. Tubuloglomerular feedback
D. Renin-angiotensin system

A 14-month-old was diagnosed with Hemophilus influenza meningitis. The initial treatment plan was to start on ampicillin but later was shifted to ceftriaxone. What could be the probable reason?

A. Hemophilus produces beta lactamase, hence resistant to ampicillin
B. Hemophilusalters penicillin binding protein sites, hence resistant to ampicillin
C. Easier to administer IV ceftriaxone than IV ampicillin
D. Cotrimoxazole is the drug of choice, but patient is allergic to sulfa drugs

All are true regarding heart failure except:

A. Regardless of ejection fraction, 5-year mortality is around 50%
B. Atrial fibrillation causes about a quarter of stroke cases
C. Non-cardiovascular death is more in HFrEF than HFpEF
D. ACE inhibitors cause cough in 15% and angioedema in 1%

A patient presented with severe watery diarrhea resembling that of rice gruel stool. Damage of which structure is likely to have resulted in this diarrhea?

A. Hemidesmosomes
B. Gap junction
C. Zona occludens
D. Adherent junction

Which of the following is the most effective drug in smoking cessation?

A. Varenicline
B. Buspirone SR
C. Nicotine gum
D. Rimonabant

A 30-year-old female patient came to the outpatient department with complaints of neck swelling. She gives history of weight loss and palpitations. On examination, she has exophthalmos and a diffusely enlarged thyroid gland. What are the essential investigations that should be done for the patient?

A. 1,2,3,4 and 5
B. 1,3,5 only
C. 3,4,5 only
D. 1,3,4 and 5 only

Which of the following is a novel anti-depressant?

A. Lurasidone
B. Vilazodone
C. Asenapine
D. Blonanserin

Which of the following is a centrally acting opioid antitussive?

A. Ambroxol
B. Diphenoxylate
C. Levopropoxyphene
D. Levorphanol

The stroke volume depends on end-diastolic volume. This is best represented as?

A. Length–force relationship
B. Length–velocity relationship
C. Length-tension relationship
D. Length-viscosity relationship

The blood investigation of a patient is given below. What is the probable diagnosis? HBsAg- Nonreactive, HBeAg- Nonreactive, IgG anti-HbcAg – Reactive, IgM anti-HbcAg – Nonreactive

A. Acute hepatitis B
B. Chronic hepatitis B
C. Remote infection of hepatitis B
D. Core window period

Which of the following ions in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle is responsible for the resorption of divalent ions?

A. H+
B. HCO3-
C. K+
D. Na+

Which of the following sensory receptors are responsible for tactile discrimination?

A. Merkel disc
B. Ruffini end organ
C. Pacinian corpuscle
D. Meissner’s corpuscle

True about electroencephalogram (EEG) is all except:

A. 1-5% of the population can have epileptiform discharges
B. Scalp EEG may be helpful in localizing frontal lobe epilepsy
C. Doing EEG is mandatory for diagnosis of seizures
D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy shows triphasic and slow waves on EEG

At which level does the nerve supply for the marked structure arise?

A. Red nucleus
B. Sub thalamic nuclei
C. Decussation of pyramidal tract
D. Olivary nucleus

Match the following developmental milestones: 1. Transfers objects, 2. Social smile, 3. Pincer grasp, 4. Walks 1-2 steps.

A. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
B. 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
C. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d
D. 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a

Which of the following jugular venous pressure (JVP) waves corresponds to the isovolumetric contraction phase of the cardiac cycle?

A. A wave
B. C wave
C. X descent
D. Y descent

Which of the following marked structure is damaged in respiratory distress syndrome?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A neonate is found to have increased irritability, poor feeding, and 2 episodes of seizures. A lumbar puncture was done and the findings were suggestive of meningitis. What is the most likely causative organism?

A. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Escherichia coli
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Listeria monocytogenes

The extracellular concentration of chloride is 100 mmol/L, and the intracellular concentration is 10 mmol/L. What are the equilibrium potentials of chloride?

A. +10 mV
B. –10 mV
C. –60 mV
D. +60 mV

A 55-year old patient had a tooth extraction three days back. He now presents with a mass in the submandibular region which is otherwise asymptomatic. There is no ulcer on the oral mucosa. On drainage of the discharge, it was foul-smelling with a lot of yellow granules. They showed gram-positive filamentous rods on gram's staining. What is the most likely implicated pathogen?

A. Chromoblastomycosis
B. Mucormycosis
C. Actinomycetes israelli
D. Histoplasmosis

Which of the following can be used for induction of anaesthesia, maintenance and can be safely used in endotracheal intubation?

A. Halothane
B. Desflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Isoflurane

All of the following cause a right shift of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve, except?

A. Increased HbF
B. Raised 2,3 BPG
C. Acidosis
D. Increased CO2

During resuscitation, a patient received a 20% intralipid injection. What could have been the most probable diagnosis?

A. Local anaesthesia toxicity
B. Asphyxia due to drowning
C. Electrocution
D. Pulseless electrical activity

A lesion in which lobe will lead to impaired hand – eye coordination?

A. Parietal lobe
B. Frontal lobe
C. Temporal lobe
D. Occipital lobe

Which of the following statements is true regarding trematodes?

A. Fasciola hepatica are seen in the intrahepatic biliary radicles
B. Schistosoma are monoecious
C. Fasciola hepatica acquired through contaminated water
D. Triclabendazole is the treatment of choice for all trematode infections

The sodium iodide symporter is present in all of the following except

A. Thyroid gland
B. Placenta
C. Salivary gland
D. Pituitary gland

A man with FUO has a job that requires traveling around the world. The bone marrow picture is shown below. Which of the following investigations would be the most appropriate in this case?

A. rk 39 antigen test, Leishmaniasis
B. pLDH, plasmodium malaria
C. Biopsy, Histoplasmosis
D. ELISA, HIV

A 22-year-old male was brought to the emergency room following a road traffic accident. On examination, his GCS was E2M2V3. He had no fractures and no hydrocephalus or raised intracranial pressure. Non-contrast CT was performed and was found to be normal. The likely diagnosis is

A. Diffuse axonal injury
B. Post-concussion syndrome
C. Extradural haemorrhage
D. Herniation of brain

A woman presented with confusion, constipation, and headache. Serum calcium was 13.1 mg/dL and ALP was elevated. She was diagnosed with primary hyperparathyroidism. Which of the following is the imaging of choice?

A. MRI
B. FDG PET
C. CT
D. Sestamibi scan

Which of the following is true regarding CORADS? CORADS: COVID-19 Reporting and Data System

A. CORADS- 0 indicates normal lung
B. CORADS-5 is typical of COVID- 19
C. Pleural thickening is typical of COVID-19
D. Lobar consolidation is typical of COVID-19

All of the following oncogenic viruses can integrate with the human genome to initiate carcinogenesis except?

A. HPV
B. HBV
C. HTLV
D. EBV

Which one of the following is the most radioresistant phase of the cell cycle?

A. S phase
B. M phase
C. G1 phase
D. G2 phase

A 6 year old boy complains of cough and throat pain. On examination of the oral cavity, a white pseudomembrane was visualized. A swab was taken from it and stained as given in the image below. What is the procedure for the following staining?

A. 1,2,5,8
B. 6,3,8,4
C. 7,8,4,3
D. 3,2,1,8

A 25-year-old male presented with symptoms of inability to flex the distal interphalangeal joint of the 4th and 5th digits. He was also not able to hold a piece of paper between his fingers. What is the likely site of injury?

A. A
B
C
D

Which nerve injury causes the given condition?

A. Ulnar nerve
B. Radial nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Posterior interosseous nerve

A young child with absent thymus is brought to the OPD with features of hypoparathyroidism and tetany. Which of the following marked area in the picture is defective in this condition?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A 24-year-old male patient presented to the outpatient department with cervical lymphadenopathy. As a part of the evaluation, the Paul- Bunnell test was done. What is the principle of this test?

A. Complement fixation
B. Superantigens
C. Heterophile antibodies
D. Haptens

The para-sagittal section of the abdomen is given below. What is the superior border of the marked structure?

A. Caudate lobe of liver
B. Duodenum
C. Lesser omentum
D. Inferior vena cava

Which of the following is a dematiaceous fungus?

A. Mucor species
B. Aspergillus niger
C. Cladosporium
D. Blastomyces dermatitidis

A boy with a history of a fall from a tree presents with a lurching gait and dragging of his feet. Which of the following structures are involved?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A 24-year-old female presents with complaints of foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Drug of choice to treat this condition is

A. Clindamycin
B. Metronidazole
C. Cotrimoxazole
D. Azithromycin

Fibers from the marked structure end in which of the following areas of the thalamus?

A. Posterior nucleus
B. Reticular nucleus
C. Anterior nucleus
D. Ventral lateral nucleus

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Vulval hematoma
B. Condyloma accuminata
C. Vulval cancer
D. Bartholin cyst

The cell marked in the below slide is inhibitory to

A. Deep nuclei of cerebellum
B. Vestibular nuclei
C. Inferior olivary nucleus
D. Basal ganglia

Identify the virus given in the following replication cycle.

A. Human immunodeficiency virus
B. Herpes simplex virus
C. Hepatitis B virus
D. Coronavirus

Which part of this bone is palpable in the infraclavicular fossa?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Identify the component responsible for endotoxic shock in gram-negative bacteria.

A. 2
B. 4
C. 1
D. 3

Identify the incorrect match:

A. 1-cilia
B. 4-lamina propria
C. 2-goblet cells
D. 3-nuclei of epithelial cell

What is the most common complication of the central line insertion below the marked bone?

A. Arterial puncture
B. Thrombophlebitis
C. Empyema
D. Chylothorax

A patient presented with fever, dyspnea, palpitations, and tachycardia. The echocardiography revealed vegetation in the septal leaflets. Tissue sections from them reveal the following findings as shown in the image. What is the most likely implicated agent?

A. Pigmented septate hyphae at 90 degrees, Mucormycosis
B. Right angle branching septate hyphae, Fusarium
C. Acute angle branching hyphae, Rhizopus
D. Acute angle branching septate hyphae, Aspergillus

Which of the following is true about the cause of the given finding?

A. Lightning strike
B. Electrocution
C. Marbling
D. Trickling down of acid

A 50-year old male patient has grade 3 ASA. Which of the following post bronchodilator PFT findings requires further evaluation of the lung function of the patient?

A. FEV1<0.85 and FEV1/FVC<0.8
B. FEV1<0.85 and FEV1/FVC<0.75
C. FEV1<0.85 and FEV1/FVC<0.7
D. FEV1<0.8 and FEV1/FVC<0.75

The strict anaerobe among the following is ………..

A. Burkholderia cepacian
B. Yersinia enterocoliticia
C. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
D. Prevotella

In a PHC, which of the following initial screening tests are used to diagnose diabetes?

A. HbA1c >6.5, Fasting blood sugar >126mg/dl
B. Fasting blood sugar >126mg/dl, Random blood sugar >200mg/dl
C. Fasting blood sugar >126mg/dl, 2-hour post glucose load blood sugar
D. HbA1c >6.5, Fasting blood sugar >126mg/dl, Random blood sugar >200mg/dl

The enzyme kinetics depicted in the graph is suggestive of

A. Allosteric activation
B. Cooperative binding
C. Michaelis Menten kinetics
D. Sigmoid curve

Identify the urinary crystal shown below:

A. Calcium oxalate
B. Calcium phosphate
C. Uric acid
D. Cysteine

A 45-year-old man developed generalized muscle spasm with arching of his back as shown in the image, a few days after sustaining a puncture wound to his leg. The toxin responsible for this type of abdominal posturing acts by which of the following mechanisms?

A. Presynaptic inhibitor of GABA and glycine release
B. Presynaptic inhibitor of Arch receptors
C. Postsynaptic inhibitor of GABA
D. Cleavage of SNARE proteins preventing Ach release

Which of the following tests will be positive in the urine of a patient who has undergone prolonged starvation?

A. 1 and 3
B. Only 3
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 2

A young man presented with hearing loss and tinnitus. Histology image is shown below. What is the diagnosis?

A. Neurofibroma
B. Schwannoma
C. Leiomyoma
D. Rhabdomyoma

Which of the following devices can be used in a patient with bilateral external auditory atresia?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Identify the organism shown in this image.

A. Strongyloides stercoralis
B. Enterobius vermicularis
C. Ancylostoma duodenale
D. Ascaris lumbricoides

Which of the following modalities are used for the diagnosis of placenta accreta?

A. Ultrasonography, Angiography
B. Ultrasonography, MRI
C. MRI, Angiography
D. Ultrasonography, X-ray

The latent period, contraction period, and relaxation period of a skeletal muscle are 10 ms, and 50 ms, respectively. Calculate the tetanizing frequency.

A. 100 per second
B. 50 per second
C. 20 per second
D. 25 per second

The anti-epileptic drugs which can also be used for the treatment of neuropathic pain are:

A. Pregabalin, Carbamazepine, Lamotrigine
B. Pregabalin, Carbamazepine, Gabapentin
C. Pregabalin, Lamotrigine, Gabapentin
D. Carbamazepine, Gabapentin

Identify the chart given in the picture below. ETDRS- Early treatment diabetic retinopathy study

A. Hess chart
B. Snellen chart
C. Pelli-Robson chart
D. ETDRS chart

What is the probable diagnosis based on the finding given in the CT image?

A. Concha bullosa
B. Pneumatised superior turbinate
C. Onodi cell
D. Haller cell

Which method among the following is commonly used for detecting RNA through molecular analysis?

A. G banding
B. Sanger's method
C. RT-PCR
D. Western blot

Oil red O stain is used in which of the following?

A. Formalin fixation
B. Frozen section
C. Alcohol fixation
D. Gluteraldehyde fixation

Which of the following steps does Vancomycin act on?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

What is the repair mechanism associated with CRISPR-cas9?

A. Non-homologous end joining
B. Base excision repair
C. Nucleotide excision repair
D. Mismatch repair