Which hormone is primarily responsible for milk ejection?
A. EstrogenB. Prolactin
C. Oxytocin
D. Progesterone
What is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis?
A. SalbutamolB. Diphenhydramine
C. Epinephrine
D. Hydrocortisone
Which induction agent is preferred in patients with asthma?
A. KetamineB. Thiopentone
C. Propofol
D. Etomidate
Which of the following is not an adverse effect of aminoglycosides?
A. OtotoxicityB. Hepatotoxicity
C. Nephrotoxicity
D. Neuromuscular blockade
A 10-year-old presents with itchy, erythematous plaques with silvery scales. Most likely diagnosis?
A. Atopic dermatitisB. Psoriasis
C. Tinea corporis
D. Lichen planus
Which fracture is commonly associated with foot drop?
A. Femoral neck fractureB. Tibial plateau fracture
C. Fibular neck fracture
D. Intertrochanteric fracture
Which of the following is the most radiosensitive phase of the cell cycle?
A. M phaseB. G1 phase
C. S phase
D. G2 phase
Which immunoglobulin is mainly responsible for mucosal immunity?
A. IgEB. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgG
Which neurotransmitter is decreased in Parkinson’s disease?
A. AcetylcholineB. Serotonin
C. Dopamine
D. GABA
What is the most common site for nosebleeds in children?
A. Woodruff’s plexusB. Little’s area
C. Posterior ethmoid
D. Sphenopalatine artery
Which of the following enzymes is deficient in Phenylketonuria?
A. TyrosinaseB. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
C. Homogentisate oxidase
D. DOPA decarboxylase
Which vitamin deficiency is associated with night blindness?
A. Vitamin AB. Vitamin B1
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin C
What is the half-life of tritium (H-3)?
A. 12.3 yearsB. 4.5 billion years
C. 5730 years
D. 10 days
Which electrolyte abnormality is most characteristic of Addison’s disease?
A. HypernatremiaB. Hypercalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia
Best method for the detection of mutations with low allele frequency is:
A. FISHB. Droplet digital PCR
C. Sanger sequencing
D. Nested PCR
Deamination of methylated cytosine forms which of the following?
A. GuanineB. Thymine
C. Cytosine
D. Uracil
CT scan of a patient with laryngeal carcinoma is shown below. What is the staging?
A. T3N0M0B. T2N1M0
C. T1N0M0
D. T4N1M0
Mutation of the gene of cystic fibrosis occurs with:
A. Phenylalanine at 508 position, chloride channelB. Tryptophan at 508 position, calcium channel
C. Phenylalanine at 708 position, calcium channel
D. Tryptophan at 708 position, chloride channel
Arrange the following in the sequence of auditory pathway:
1. Cochlear nucleus
2. Spiral ganglion
3. Superior olivary nucleus
4. Inferior colliculus
5. Medial geniculate body
B. 5-4-3-2-1
C. 1-2-3-4-5
D. 3-4-5-1-2
A patient presented with reduced levels of high-density lipoprotein, and ABCA1 mutation. On examination, tonsils had yellowish deposit. What is the diagnosis?
A. HyperlipoproteinemiaB. Wolman’s disease
C. Tangier’s disease
D. Abetalipoproteinemia
A gentleman presents with a saddle nose deformity and history of cough, fever, hemoptysis. Exam reveals septal perforation, pale granuloma. Chest x-ray shows cavitary lesions and biopsy shows granuloma with caseous necrosis. What is the probable cause?
A. TuberculosisB. Syphilis
C. Wegener’s granulomatosis
D. Sarcoidosis
A 35-year-old female patient with nasal obstruction and post-nasal drip, history of FESS, shows patent ostia and mucosal edema. What is the next best step in management?
A. Macrolides for 4 monthsB. Repeat surgery
C. Steroid irrigation and antihistamines
D. Biological therapy
A baby with delayed milestones and hepatosplenomegaly. Bone marrow slide provided shows crumpled tissue paper appereance. What is the diagnosis?
A. Hurler diseaseB. Hunter disease
C. Niemann-pick disease
D. Gaucher disease
Increased H+ ions in the intermembrane space of mitochondria are due to?
A. Decreased oxidative phosphorylation.B. Increased ATP production
C. Reduced chemiosmosis
D. Water Retention in inner mitochondrial space
Identify the pathognomonic structure in the slide given below.
B. Sclerotic body
C. Negri body
D. Budding yeast
A 10-year-old boy presents with fever, joint pain, and a lesion over the hand. What is the clinical finding and likely diagnosis?
B. Rheumatoid nodules – Juvenile rheumatic arthritis
C. Sclerodactyly – Systemic sclerosis
D. Mechanic’s hand – Systemic lupus erythematosus
Antigen binding to MHC class I activates which of the following cells?
A. NK cellsB. Cytotoxic T cells
C. Helper cells
D. B cells
Which of the following is true about anti–CMV IgG antibodies?
A. Denotes chronic CMV infection with immunity to other serotypesB. Indicates acute CMV infection
C. IgG avidity assay helps in differentiating past and primary infection
D. Denotes latent CMV infection
Which of the following statements regarding the given image is correct?
B. Infection is acquired by ingestion of aquatic plants
C. Albendazole is the drug of choice
D. Majority of infections are asymptomatic in humans
Which of the following are acid–fast staining organisms?
1. Nocardia
2. Mycobacterium leprae
3. Actinomyces
4. Cryptosporidium parvum
5. Isospora belli
B. 1,2,3,4,5
C. 3,4,5
D. 1,2,3
What is the ratio of T cells to B cells in a healthy adult?
A. 1:1B. 1:3
C. 3:1
D. 1:2
A 12-week pregnant woman on multidrug therapy for leprosy presents with type 2 lepra reaction. What is the treatment of choice for this patient?
A. Continue MDT and add oral steroidsB. Thalidomide
C. Antibiotics
D. Stop MDT and start oral steroids.
Vesicular rash is seen in……………
A. DengueB. Zika fever
C. Hand, foot, and mouth disease
D. Roseola infantum
Match the following scale types with their lesions.
1. Collarette scales
2. Silvery scales
3. Mica–like scales
4. Branny scales
A. Ptyriasis versicolour
B. Pityriasis rosea
C. Psoriasis
D. Pityriasis lichenoides
B. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d,4-c
C. 1-c, 2-b, 3-d,4-a
D. 1-d, 2-c, 3-a,4-b
An HIV patient came to the clinic with a history of diarrhea. Stool microscopy showed the oocysts that were 4–8 μm in size. Identify the organism.
A. CyclosporaB. Cryptosporidium
C. Isospora
D. Microspora
A 60-year-old patient presents with a lesion. He also mentions that a spider crawled into the lesion area when he woke. What is the most likely diagnosis?
B. Allergic contact dermatitis
C. Irritant contact dermatitis
D. Herpes simplex infection
The image shows the life cycle of HPV virus. Which of the proteins act as oncogenes?
A. E1, E2B. E1, E2, E5
C. L1, L2
D. E6, E7
Which among the following causes non-scarring alopecia?
1. Alopecia areata
2. Telogen effluvium
3. Androgenic alopecia
4. Frontal fibrosing alopecia
B. 2,3 and 4
C. Only 4
D. 1, 2 and 3
A young man presents with skin lesions. All of the following organisms can spread through dermal and subcutaneous lymphatics, except:
A. Staphylococcus aureusB. Sporothrix schenckii
C. Nocardia asteroides
D. Mycobacterium marinum
A diabetic patient’s fasting blood glucose level is 160 mg/dL. What should be advised for non-pharmacological management?
A. At least 80 mg of dietary fibreB. less than 30% of the calories should come from fat
C. Cholesterol <100 mg
D. <5 g sodium intake every day
Which virus can be identified by PCR and is endemic to India?
A. Ebola virusB. West Nile virus
C. Yellow fever
D. Hendra virus
A chronic smoker joins a construction company. His PFT shows: FEV1-0.9L, FVC-1.9L, FEV1/FVC-0.4. After bronchodilation: FEV1-1.9L, FVC-3.9L, FEV1/FVC-0.4. What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Obstructive disease with bronchodilator reversibilityB. Restrictive lung disease without bronchodilator reversibility
C. Restrictive lung disease with bronchodilator reversibility
D. Vascular disease with bronchodilator reversibility
Which of the following is a gram-positive organism showing the described appearance on Ziehl-Neelsen staining?
B. Mycobacterium leprae
C. Nocardia
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Which of the following is not a first-line drug for managing rheumatoid arthritis?
A. MethotrexateB. Hydroxychloroquine
C. Azathioprine
D. Sulfasalazine
Identify the incorrect Parvovirus disease–population pair:
A. Non-immune hydrops – pregnant womenB. Aplastic anemia – Patient with hereditary hemolytic anemia
C. Non-erosive arthritis – Patients of SLE
D. Erythema infectiosum – infants
A forest worker developed skin lesions over the forearm, which initially started as macules but then became nodules. Histology of the nodule shows the following findings. Which of the following is true regarding this condition?
A. Infections can spread and involve underlying subcutaneous tissue, tendon, muscle, or jointsB. Angioinvasion is common especially in people with hemolytic anemia
C. These bodies are formed by engulfment of the dead fungi by the macrophages
D. It is a dematiaceous fungus
The viruses of the filoviridae family like Ebola and Marburg resemble which of the following morphologies?
A. FilamentousB. Icosahedral
C. Bullet-shaped
D. Spherical
Mark the correct statement regarding inflammatory bowel disease.
A. Skip lesions are present in Crohn’s diseaseB. Mucosal layers are involved in Crohn’s while transmural involvement seen in ulcerative colitis
C. Inflammatory bowel disease doesn’t have a genetic predisposition
D. Crohn’s is curable through surgical resection of the affected segment
A person presents to the hospital with fever and chills. Fever profile is ordered and is found to be negative for malaria and dengue. Rk39 test is found to be positive. What is the treatment of choice?
A. Amphotericin BB. Griseofulvin
C. Dapsone
D. Hydroxychloroquine
Which of the following is the incorrect statement regarding the management of frostbite?
A. Amputation in severe casesB. Rewarming is done
C. Antibiotics and analgesics not used
D. The area is dried and cleaned
Which of the following is not a cause of central cyanosis?
A. MethemoglobinemiaB. Pulmonary arteriovenous fistula
C. High altitude
D. Hypothermia
Which of the following drugs is not used for the emergency (immediate) management of hyperkalemia?
A. 10% calcium gluconate over 10 minB. Salbutamol nebulisation
C. Insulin-dextrose
D. Injection MgSO4
A patient, who is a known case of HIV with a CD4 count of 200 cells/cu.mm, presents with 5 days of cough and high-grade fever without chills and rigors. There is no history of diarrhoea, vomiting, or nuchal rigidity. Chest x-ray is normal. What treatment will you give?
A. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid + AzithromycinB. Co-trimoxazole + steroids
C. Co-trimoxazole only
D. Antitubercular treatment
Identify the conduction abnormality from the ECG shown below:
B. Ventricular tachycardia
C. Third degree heart block
D. Second degree heart block
What is the action of the superior oblique muscle?
A. Intorsion, abduction, depressionB. Intorsion, adduction, elevation
C. Extorsion, abduction, depression
D. Extorsion, adduction, elevation
The absence of loud S1 in mitral stenosis would indicate all of the following except:
A. Calcified valveB. Aortic regurgitation
C. First degree heart block
D. Mild mitral stenosis
Which triad is seen after an acute attack of angle-closure glaucoma?
A. Vogt’s triadB. Virchow triad
C. Hutchinson’s triad
D. Gaucher triad
Thrombolysis can be considered in all of these conditions except:
A. MRI showing density in less than 1/3rd of the area supplied by MCAB. Blood pressure of more than 185/110 mmHg
C. Ischemic stroke within 2 hours
D. Onset of symptoms less than 4 hours
In which of the following conditions do you see punched-out lesions of the retina?
A. Posterior staphylomaB. Fundal coloboma
C. Congenital Rubella
D. Toxoplasmosis
A 27-year-old female patient presents with sudden diminishing vision associated with a relative afferent pupillary defect in the right eye. On examination, the left eye is normal. Which of the following investigations would you do next?
A. MRI brain and orbit, Myelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein (MOG) and neuromyelitis optica (NMO) antibodies, Blood sugarB. MRI brain and orbit, Myelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein (MOG) and neuromyelitis optica (NMO) antibodies
C. Blood sugar, Thyroid profile
D. Thyroid profile, Blood sugar
Identify the condition given in the image.
B. Ankyloblepharon
C. Congenital blepharophimosis
D. Congenital ptosis
Which of the following is not a feature of pterygium?
A. Rate of recurrence is 95%B. It is a fibrovascular growth
C. The parts of a pterygium are the head, neck and body
D. Has progressive and regressive types
A pregnant woman presents with fever, retroorbital pain, headache, pulsatile proptosis of the right eye, and tinnitus. BP and fundus were normal. Which of the following structures are involved?
A. Abducens nerveB. Oculomotor nerve
C. Internal carotid artery
D. Cavernous sinus
E. All
A 50-year-old male patient presented with left-sided hemiparesis. Damage to which part of the internal capsule leads to this presentation?
A. RetrolentiformB. Sublentiform
C. Anterior limb
D. Posterior limb
Identify the cell marked in the image below.
A. Mast cellB. Macrophage
C. Plasma cell
D. Fibroblast
Which of the following is false about bipolar disorder?
A. It most commonly affects ages 35-45 yearsB. Type 1 is common in both sexes
C. Prevalence in the general population is 1-2%
D. Attempt to commit suicide seen in around 15% of people
In neonatal resuscitation, which of the following is the most effective indicator of successful ventilatory effort?
A. Colour changeB. Rise in heart rate
C. Air entry
D. Chest rise
A child presents with multiple skin lesions over the inner thigh and genital areas. It initially started as macules and later developed to become nodules. Some nodules have central umbilication. What would be found on biopsy?
A. Multinucleate giant cells (Tzanck cells)B. Donovan bodies
C. Henderson – Patterson bodies
D. Koilocytes
A young patient presents to the clinic with erythematous lesions over the exposed areas of the skin like hands, arms, chest, etc. She also complains of arthralgia and breathlessness. Which among the following antibodies will be useful in diagnosing this condition?
A. Antihistone antibodiesB. Anti dsDNA antibodies
C. Anticentromere antibodies
D. Antinuclear antibodies
On performing polysomnography in a patient, the waves of EOG, EEG, and EMG, from above downwards, are seen below. Which stage of sleep do the marked areas represent?
A. REM sleepB. NREM I sleep
C. NREM II sleep
D. NREM II sleep
A patient presented with violent, flinging movements. Where is the lesion causing the hemiballismus seen?
A. PutamenB. Subthalamic nucleus
C. Caudate nucleus
D. Globus pallidus
Identify the given bone marrow biopsy instrument.
B. Sala’s needle
C. Jamshidi needle
D. Islam needle
The extent of drug absorption is represented by:
A. TmaxB. Area under the curve
C. Cmax
D. t1/2
Which of the following is seen in MEN 2B syndrome?
A. Café au lait spotB. Medullary thyroid carcinoma
C. Parathyroid adenoma
D. Optic nerve glioma
Which among the following drugs is the new FDA approved immune checkpoint inhibitor for carcinoma endometrium?
A. NivolumabB. Pembrolizumab
C. Transtuzumab
D. Ipilimumab
Match the following:
1. Kleptomania
2. Pyromania
3. Mutilomania
4. Dipsomania
A. Intense desire to drink alcoholic drinks
B. Intense desire to mutilate
C. Intense desire to steal items of trivial value
D. Intense desire to burn things
B: 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
C: 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
D: 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
Identify the correct match, regarding the drug and its adverse effect.
A: Hydralazine – heart failureB: Atenolol – hemolytic anemia
C: Alskiren – hypokalemia
D: Verapamil – Constipation
A lady who had undergone mastectomy for breast cancer is being treated with tamoxifen. How long should it be stopped before she can conceive?
A: 1 monthB: 3 months
C: No need to stop
D: Can be stopped and conceived soon after stopping
A patient was diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis and was started on first time antitubercular drugs. Which of the following drug acts by inhibiting the synthesis of mycolic acid layer?
A: IsoniazidB: Rifampicin
C: Pyrazinamide
D: Ethambutol
A man was brought to the emergency room after poisoning with an unknown substance. Muscarinic poisoning was suspected and he was treated for the same. What is the possible presenting feature which led to the diagnosis?
A: MydriasisB: Diuresis
C: Muscle fasciculations
D: Bradycardia
A 14-year-old girl presented with sudden-onset blindness for the past 4 hours. However, on history taking, it is noted that she is not concerned about it. However, she is concerned that her mother passed away recently and that she should have spent more time with her. Physical examination findings are normal. Which of the following is true about the condition?
A: In children, equally among males and femalesB: In adults, equally among males and females
C: In adults, it occurs more in males than in females
D: In children, it occurs more in females than in males
A 29-year-old lady came to psychiatry OPD with symptoms of hypomania. There is past history of manic episode. Now, she is planning to conceive. Which drug should be avoided for being highly teratogenic to the fetus?
A: ValproateB: Lithium
C: Oxcarbazepine
D: Olanzapine
A patient with diabetes develops a UTI, which gets complicated with hypotension that is resistant to IV fluids. Which of the following antibiotics can be used?
A: Piperacillin- TazobactamB: Amoxicillin – Clavulanate
C: Ceftriaxone
D: Nitrofurantoin
What is the most common site of abdominal tuberculosis?
A: RectumB: Colon
C: Small intestine
D: Ileocecal junction
A woman presents with altered sensorium, breathlessness, hypotension and bradycardia. Examination revealed non-pitting edema of the extremities. She has a long-standing history of weight gain, constipation, cold intolerance, and menorrhagia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A: Septic shockB: Cardiogenic shock
C: Myxedema coma
D: Hyperthyroidism
A patient presented with ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome, ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature sensations in the face, vertigo with numbness and loss of sweating and dysarthria on the contralateral side. All these symptoms are caused due to a lesion in:
A: Medial medullaB: Lateral medulla
C: Ventromedial medulla
D: Lateral medulla including nucleus ambiguous and spinothalamic tract
A female presented with loss of pain and temperature, but her touch sensation was intact. Imaging showed cavitation around the central canal. What is the probable diagnosis?
A: Brown-Sequard syndromeB: Tabes dorsalis
C: Syringobulbia
D: Syringomyelia
Match the following drugs with their contraindications:
1. Morphine
2. Amiodarone
3. Vigabatrin
4. Estrogen preparations
A. QT prolongation
B. Thromboembolism
C. Pregnancy
D. Head injury
B: A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
C: A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
D: A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
What does the given ECG show?(tall p)
A: P-pulmonaleB: Ventricular bigeminy
C: Electrical alternans
D: Improper calibration
A 19 year old girl presents with a midline neck swelling that moves on deglutition. USG revealed a 2 cm x 2 cm nodule on the left lobe of the thyroid, extending into the strap muscles. The histopathology images is given below. What is the most likely diagnosis?
B: Follicular CA thyroid
C: Thyroglossal cyst
D: Papillary CA thyroid
A young man sustained a scorpion sting 2 hours ago. On examination, his blood pressure is 108/60 mm Hg; HR, 72 beats / minute and respiratory rate, 32 breaths/ minute. He also complains of breathlessness. How do you manage this patient?
A: MetoprololB: Ivabradine
C: Prazosin
D: Frusemide
A patient who is a known case of HIV is started on combined active antiretroviral therapy (cART). After 5 months of treatment, he develops hyperpigmentation in the palms and soles. What is the most likely drug causing this?
A: NelfinavirB: Emtricitabine
C: Abacavir
D: Zidovudine
A male patient with hemoptysis. On examination, a hilar mass was present. The histopathological image is shown below. Immunohistochemistry revealed that the cells were positive for p40. What is the diagnosis?
A: Squamous cell carcinomaB: Adenocarcinoma lung
C: Small cell cancer lung
D: Large cell carcinoma
Which physiological adaptation does not happen at high altitudes?
A: Pulmonary vasoconstrictionB: Polycythemia
C: Respiratory acidosis
D: Hypoxia
Which among the following is the false statement regarding statins?
A: Although HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors substantially reduce the risk of cardiovascular events, there is mild increase in lipoprotein a (Lpa) levels.B: These drugs should not be stopped even in severe conditions like injury, surgery etc.
C: They can be given with verapamil and other enzyme inhibitors
D: With the long term use, there is slight increase in the incidence of type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Which of the following is true about proto-oncogenes?
1. KIT has decreased expression via the tyrosine kinase signaling pathway in GIST.
2. KRAS mutation is more commonly associated with small cell lung cancer.
3. ERBB2 is over-expressed in association with breast carcinomas.
4. PDGFR-β has suppressed expression in colorectal cancer.
B: 3 only
C: 1 and 4
D: 2 and 3
The countercurrent mechanism is not present in which of the following parts of the body?
A: EyeB: Testes
C: Kidney
D: Gut
E: Lungs
Match the following molecules with their carriers in plasma:
TRANSPORTER ORGANIC SUBSTANCE
1. Thyroxine - A. Hemopexin
2. Fatty acid - B. Prealbumin
3. Hemoglobin - C. Albumin
4. Heme - D. Haptoglobin
B: 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
C: 1-A, 2-D, 3-B, 4-C
D: 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
Choose the correctly matched pairs regarding the drugs used in schizophrenia:
1. D2 antagonism: Reduces positive symptoms
2. 5HT2A antagonism: Reduces negative
3. 5HT1A agonism: Weight loss
4. Muscarinic antagonism: Reduces extrapyramidal symptoms
B: 1,4
C: 1,2,4
D: 1,2,3,4
Which of the following statements are true about familial adenomatous polyposis?
1. It is autosomal recessive
2. If not treated, 100% of the cases progress to adenocarcinoma colon.
3. It is associated with a gene mutation in KRAS
4. It is associated with congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium.
B: 1 and 4
C: 2 and 3
D: 3 and 4
What does zero pressure indicate in the pressure-volume curve?
A: Residual volumeB: Functional residual capacity
C: Tidal volume
D: Inspiratory reserve volume
A patient who is on treatment for hyperlipidemia develops gallstones. What is the mechanism of action of the causative drug that was given to this patient?
A: Inhibits HMG CoA reductaseB: Activates PPAR alpha
C: Binds to deoxycholic acid
D: Decrease VLDL
A 10 year old boy presented with fatigue. Investigations revealed: Hemoglobin, 9 g/dL; MCV, 60fL; MCH, 20 pg; and serum ferritin, 185 μg/L. The TLC was elevated and showed predominant lymphocytes and neutrophils. What is the likely diagnosis in this patient?
Normal values
● Serum ferritin; 50-150 μg/L
● Mean cell volume (MCV)- 80-100 fL
● Mean cell Hb (MCH)-27-31 pg
● TLC- Total leukocyte count
B: Anemia of chronic disorder
C: Iron-deficiency anemia
D: Sickle cell anemia
The graph shows oxygen dissociation curves shift to extreme left (hyperbolic shape). What does the curve indicate?
A: MyoglobinB: Carboxyhemoglobinemia
C: Methemoglobin
D: Fetal hemoglobin
Cyclooxygenase plays a role in which pathway?
A: Kreb’s cycleB: Prostaglandin
C: Leukotriene
D: Vitamin K
Choose the correct options regarding the route of administration and bioavailability.
A- Intravenous = 1
B- 0.75 < Oral < 1
C- 0.75 < IM ≤ 1
D- 0.75 < SC ≤ 1
IM – Intramuscular
SC- Subcutaneous
B: A, C, D
C: A and C
D: A and D
The following is a histopathological image of thyroid pathology. What is the diagnosis?
B: Papillary carcinoma of thyroid
C: Follicular carcinoma of thyroid
D: Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid
Which of the following is the most effective oral drug for smoking cessation?
A: VareniclineB: Cevimeline
C: Muscarine
D: Atropine
Which among the following organs has the least arteriovenous oxygen difference?
A: BrainB: Kidney
C: Skin
D: Liver
The Hb is 5g/ dL and the absolute reticulocyte count percentage is 9%. What is the correct reticulocyte count?
A: 5B: 4.5
C: 3
D: 1.8
Finasteride is used to treat male-pattern baldness. It acts by inhibiting which of the following enzymes?
A: AromataseB: 17-hydrolase
C: 5-alpha reductase
D: Phosphodiesterase
The image shows changes in membrane potential during an action potential. The region marked between 4 to 5 is due to:
A: Influx of Na+B: Efflux of Na+
C: Influx of K+
D: Efflux of K+
The signaling sequence in a type 2 membrane protein with N-terminal facing cytoplasm is located in?
A: Inside the membraneB: At the C-terminal
C: At the N-terminal
D: Both inside the membrane and at C-terminal
Which of the following findings are seen in a high-resolution CT scan of fungal pneumonia?
1. Interlobular septations
2. Peripheral wedge-shaped consolidation
3. Pleural effusion
4. Cavitatory lesions with surrounding ground glass opacities
B: 1, 3, 4
C: 1, 2, 3
D: 2, 3, 4
A 7 year old child presents with fever, erythematous rash, and bone pain. X-ray of the skull shows multiple lytic lesions. Skin biopsy shows prominent nuclear grooves with eosinophils as in the image below. Immunohistochemistry for S100, CD1a is also shown in the images below. What would be the diagnosis?
A: Rosai-Dorfman diseaseB: Kimura disease
C: Langerhans cell histiocytosis
D: Juvenile Xanthogranuloma
Which of the following tissues are dependent on insulin for glucose uptake?
A: BrainB: Adipose tissue
C: Pancreas
D: Muscle
What is the normal insensible water loss?
A: 100 mL/hourB: 150 mL/hour
C: 50 mL/hour
D: 200 mL/hour
A woman must vomit whenever she eats spicy food. Arrange the sequence of events during vomiting.
1. LES is open and UES is closed
2. Strong contractions in the stomach
3. Inspiration against a closed glottis
4. Relaxation of the pyloric sphincter
5. LES opens and UES opens
6. Reverse peristalsis in the small intestine
LES: Lower esophageal sphincter
UES: Upper esophageal sphincter
B: 6, 4, 2, 3, 1, 5
C: 4, 6, 2, 1, 3, 5
D: 4, 6, 2, 5, 3, 1
Match the following cell types with their associated malignancy.
1. Popcorn cell
2. Faggot cell
3. Cerebriform nuclei
4. Starry sky
a. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
b. Lymphocyte – predominant Hodgkin’s lymphoma
c. Burkitt lymphoma
d. Sezary syndrome
B: 1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b
C: 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-c
D: 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
A 35 year old woman presents with fatigue. Investigations revealed the following: Hb, 5 gm %; MCH, 24; low MCV; leukocytes, 11,000/ uL, and platelets, 5 lakhs. The peripheral smear is showns anisocytosis. What is the diagnosis?
Normal values:
Mean cell volume (MCV); 90 ± 8 fL
Mean cell Hb (MCH); 30 ± 3 pg
B: Iron – deficiency anemia
C: Thalassemia major
D: Essential thrombocytosis
The following images show an instrument used to estimate hemoglobin levels. What does it measure?
B: Acid hematin
C: Oxyhemoglobin
D: Deoxyhemoglobin
What is the nerve supply of the structure marked in the image(thenar eminance)?
A: Radial nerveB: Median nerve
C: Ulnar nerve
D: Musculocutaneous nerve
Identify which of the following structure is a merocrine gland:
A: 1B: 2
C: 3
D: 4
Iron in tissues is stained by:
A: Masson’s trichromeB: Prussian blue
C: PAS
D: File – Faraco
A woman presents with lesions on the inner thighs and peri-anal region. They are nodular, 4-6 mm in size and appear pale. The histopathological image shows multiple intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies consistent with Henderson–Patterson bodies. The diagnosis is:
A: Trichodysplasia spinulosaB: Condyloma acuminata
C: Molluscum contagiosum
D: Donovanosis
Jarisch–Herxheimer reaction is caused by all of the following cytokines except:
A: TNF alphaB: IL-6
C: IL-8
D: INF-γ
A child presents with cyanosis. His chest radiograph is shown below. What is the diagnosis?
B: Ebstein’s anomaly
C: Transposition of great arteries (TGA)
D: Total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVC)
Which of the following statement is correct regarding the given graph? 1,2,3,4 from top to bottom 
B: Drug 3 represents agonist and drug 4 represents inverse agonist
C: Drug 1 represents agonist and drug 4 represents inverse agonist
D: Drug 2 represents partial agonist and drug 3 represents inverse agonist
Identify the condition based on the non-contrast CT scan of a patient given below.
B: Fibronodular hyperplasia
C: Liver abscess
D: Hydatid cyst
Match the following antiarrhythmic drugs with their mechanism of action:
Mechanism of action | Drug
1. Na+ channel blocker
2. K+ channel blocker
3. Na+ K+ ATPase inhibitor
4. Beta-blocker
A. Quinidine
B. Digoxin
C. Esmolol
D. Ibutilide
B: 1-a, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b
C: 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c
D: 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b
Fingerprint first develops in how many weeks of intrauterine life?
A: 12-16B: 20-24
C: 28-32
D: 32-36
Adrenocorticotropic hormone is the drug of choice in which of the following conditions?
A: Juvenile myoclonic epilepsyB: Rolandic epilepsy
C: West syndrome
D: Lennox Gastaut syndrome
Identify the given plant.
B: Argemone mexicana
C: Nerium odorum
D: Papaver somniferum
Post-mortem examination of a patient reveals the following. What is this finding known as?
B: Grazed abrasion
C: Laceration
D: Patterned bruise
Treatment of choice for acute arsenic poisoning is:
A: IpecacB: Penicillamine
C: Activated charcoal
D: Dimercaprol
Which of the following cyanotic heart diseases causes increased pulmonary blood flow?
1.Ebstein anomaly
2.Tetralogy of Fallot
3.TGA
4.TAPVC
B: 1,2
C: 3,4
D: 2,4
An 11-year-old boy was brought to the outpatient clinic with intentional tremors and poor scholastic performance. His sister has similar complaints. On examination, hepatomegaly and jaundice is seen. What is the probable diagnosis?
A: Wilson's diseaseB: Huntington's chorea
C: Glutaric aciduria
D: Hepatitis A
Which of these is not a cardiac poison?
A: AconiteB: Cerbera thevetia
C: Nicotiana tabacum
D: Atropa belladonna
The dead body of a child was recovered from a river with froth around his mouth, which reappeared even after wiping it off. Which postmortem finding is not seen in this case?
A: Voluminous and ballooned out lungsB: High concentration of arsenic from shaft of hair
C: Paltauf's hemorrhage in sub pleura
D: Cadaveric spasm with mud in closed fist
Which alternative method can be used for the procedure in the image below?
B: Arm span
C: Crown-rump length
D: Knee height
A person of eonism derives pleasure from
A: Wearing clothes of opposite sexB: Kissing and licking of anus by a sexual partner
C: Underclothing of female
D: Seeing a female undressing
Which of the following is not true about lupus nephritis in pregnancy?
A: Immunosuppression can be continued during pregnancyB: Pregnancy to be planned once the disease has been quiescent for at least 6 months and there is no evidence of renal dysfunction
C: High dose corticosteroids for lupus flare in pregnancy is safe
D: Ecosprin, methotrexate, cyclophosphamide, corticosteroids, azathioprine are safe in pregnancy
A child presents with complaints of fever, rash, body ache, and throat ache. He had a history of thorn prick injury a week back. What antibiotics would you give empirically to this child?
A: CeftriaxoneB: Amoxicillin+ clavulanate
C: Vancomycin
D: Meropenem
An unconscious child is brought to the casualty. What is the correct sequence of the management?
1. Assess breathing
2. Assess pulse
3. Assess the response
4. Start compressions
5. Bag and mask ventilation
B: 1-2-3-4-5
C: 3-1-2-4-5
D: 1-2-4-3-5
Which of the following statements is true regarding the tape shown in the image?
1. It is called Shelter's tape.
2. It is used to assess severe acute malnutrition.
3. Reading of 13.5 to 14.5 cm is considered undernourished.
4. It is useful mainly for frontline field workers.
B: 2, 4
C: 2, 3
D: 1, 4
Which of the following is false regarding management of diabetes in pregnancy?
A: Elective C-section has no role in reducing incidence of brachial plexus injuryB: In a patient being planned for induction of labor, night dose of intermediate insulin is given as planned, and the morning dose is withheld
C: In active labor, if RBS less 70 mg%, D5 is started at 100-150 ml/hr till the RBS is above 100 mg%
D: Capillary blood glucose monitoring levels are kept at fasting- 95 mg%; 1 hr postprandial- 140 mg%; 2 hrs postprandial- 120 mg%
Identify the pattern of abrasion shown in the image below.(hint: hanging)
A: Pressure abrasionB: Graze abrasion
C: Ligature mark
D: Imprint abrasion
The following cost-effective investigations are routinely recommended in the screening of antenatal mothers except?
A: Echocardiography for cardiac diseaseB: Urine analysis for bacteriuria
C: Blood sugar levels for GDM
D: VDRL for syphilis
Identify the postmortem change given in the image.
B: Tattooing
C: Lividity
D: Filigree burns
Seminal vesicles and vas deferens would be bilaterally absent congenitally (CBAVD) in which of the following conditions?
A: Cystic fibrosisB: Klinefelter syndrome
C: Kallmann syndrome
D: Kartagener syndrome
Hooch tragedy is related to:
A: PhosphorusB: Mercury
C: Ethanol
D: Methanol
Kassowitz rule is related to:
A: Primary syphilisB: Congenital syphilis
C: Secondary syphilis
D: Latent syphilis
Which hormone is secreted by the placenta?
A: LHB: hCG
C: FSH
D: GnRH
Neurogenic shock is associated with ……?
A: Hypertension + tachycardiaB: Hypotension + tachycardia
C: Hypotension + bradycardia
D: Hypertension + bradycardia
All the following are criteria for SIRS, except:
A: Systolic blood pressure less than 90mmHgB: Temperature more than 38 or less than 36
C: Respiratory rate >20 bpm
D: Heart rate >90/ min
An elderly woman underwent surgical resection of her bowel; after a few months, she presents with easy fatiguability and tiredness. Blood smear evaluation shows macrocytic anemia. Resection of all the following can cause this, except ……
A: JejunumB: Duodenum
C: Ileum
D: Stomach
The most common pattern of involvement in Pott's spine is:
A: ParadiscalB: Central
C: Anterior
D: Posterior
Which of these is the most life-threatening injury that can be identified by assessing the breathing component of the patient?
A: Cervical spine injuryB: Tension pneumothorax
C: Blunt cardiac injury
D: Laryngotracheal injury
A 32-year-old female patient with Grave’s disease with eye signs and enlarged thyroid planned for a total thyroidectomy. What can be given in the preoperative period to reduce intraoperative bleeding in the patient?
A: Potassium iodideB: Propranolol
C: Propylthiouracil
D: Betamethasone
In all the following places, hand rub can be used according to standard hand hygiene protocol, except …..
A: If the hands are visibly soiledB: While moving from a contaminated site to a clean site during patient care
C: Before donning on gloves
D: During direct patient contact
A 35-year-old man presented with knee pain. The x-ray of his knee joint is given below. What is the probable diagnosis?
B: Osteochondroma
C: Osteoclastoma
D: Fibrous dysplasia
What is the correct sequence of management in a patient who presents to the casualty with an RTA?
1. Cervical spine stabilization
2. Intubation
3. IV cannulation
4. CECT
B: 1,2,3,4
C: 2,1,3,4
D: 2,1,4,3
As per the National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP), HIV TB prevalence of …….. would deem a district a high priority district?
A: >10%B: >12%
C: >15%
D: >20%
What does the 14Fr number marked on the Foley catheter correspond to?
A: Inner lumen diameterB: Length of the tube
C: Outer tube diameter
D: Bulb size
A 49 year old female presents with a breast lump. Which of the following findings is in accordance with basal-like breast cancer?
A: ER+, PR+, HER2-B: ER+, PR-, HER2-
C: ER-, PR-, HER2-
D: ER-, PR-, HER2+
Combination of appearance in CTEV:
A: Equinus, eversion, forefoot adduction, cavusB: Equinus, inversion, forefoot adduction, cavus
C: Equinus, eversion, forefoot abduction, cavus
D: Equinus, inversion, forefoot adduction, planus
A patient with a chest x-ray finding of pneumothorax. Which of the following is not a boundary of the triangle of safety for ICD insertion?
A: Lateral edge of pectoralis majorB: Mid – clavicular line
C: Base of axilla
D: Lateral border of latissimus dorsi
Which of the following cancers are correctly matched with the criteria for the minimum number of lymph nodes required for pathological staging?
A. CA stomach -10
B. CA colon -12
C. CA gall bladder -6
D. CA breast -15
B: A,B,C
C: A,C,D
D: A,B,C,D
India is a country with different cultures and diverse languages. Which steps should a physician take to address the patient for better outcomes?
1. Insist on good communication
2. Insist on communication only via an interpreter
3. Treat them regardless of their cultural perceptions
4. The physician should consider the patient’s religion and cultural perception
B: 2,3
C: 3,4
D: 1,4
All the following are true about acute cholecystitis, except …………
A: Gall bladder thickness >3 min on USGB: Murphy’s sign positive
C: Leukocytosis
D: Preferential visualization of gall bladder in HIDA scan
Which of the following statements are true regarding central venous access and peripheral venous access?
1. Phlebitis is the most common complication in peripheral venous access.
2. Isotonic saline and heparin are flushed to retain patency
3. If an arteriovenous fistula is present in a limb, avoid peripheral venous access in the same limb.
4. Vasopressors for septic shock are given in the central line to avoid limb ischemia
B: 2,3,4
C: 1,2,3,4
D: 1,2,3
Recommended HPV vaccination schedule for 9 to 14-year-olds according to WHO SAGE guidelines is:
A: 1 or 2 dosesB: 2 doses
C: 1 dose
D: 3 doses
The true statement about screening tests for genetic diseases is?
A: It is always invasiveB: Screening test has better accuracy than diagnostic test
C: It defines risk of transmission of disease to the child
D: Screening requires genetic mapping
Which of the following is not a relative contraindication for breast conservative surgery?
A: Tumor size less than 4cm with N1 axillary metastasisB: Tumor more than the size of the breast
C: Prior chest irradiation
D: Multicentric tumors
Which of the following is the true statement regarding measures to prevent typhoid transmission in the community?
A: Typhoid vaccine administration is the best method of preventing transmission.B: Hygiene practice and clean sanitation control is more important than the typhoid vaccine.
C: In 10% of cases, person-to-person transmission occurs.
D: Drug resistance in typhoid is not as big a problem as in TB.
Which of the following is not a perineal approach for the condition shown in the image?
A: Ripstein’s procedureB: Delorme’s operation
C: Thiersch operation
D: Altemeier’s procedure
A 37-year-old unmarried nulliparous woman, having regular intercourse, is on oral contraceptive pills. Her mother was diagnosed with carcinoma breast at 60 years of age, and her elder sister was diagnosed with carcinoma ovary at 40 years of age. What is the next line of management?
A: Genetic counseling and screening for BRCAB: Routine mammography
C: Stop taking oral contraceptive pills
D: Prophylactic surgery
The table given below shows a multivariate analysis of the relation between the risk of developing blindness and age, literacy rate, residence, and gender. Which of the following is true?
A: 2 and 3B: 1 and 3
C: 1 and 2
D: 3 and 4
A 50-year-old alcoholic patient presents with a history of waxing and waning jaundice for the past 2 months. His CT examination reveals dilatation of the common bile duct and pancreatic duct. What is the most probable diagnosis in the patient?
A: CholangiocarcinomaB: Periampullary carcinoma
C: Common bile duct stone
D: Head of the pancreas carcinoma
The following procedure is performed for the management of?
B: Gallbladder carcinoma
C: Distal cholangiocarcinoma
D: Chronic calcific pancreatitis
A patient who had grade 3 splenic trauma was managed conservatively in the ICU. Which of the following signs on day 2 would indicate a need for surgery?
A: Hemoglobin fall from 12mg/dL to 10mg/dLB: Extraperitoneal bladder rupture
C: Pneumoperitoneum
D: Air in gallbladder
The given image depicts:
B: Velamentous insertion of the cord
C: Both succenturiate lobe and velamentous insertion
D: Normal placenta
The following are correct regarding normal placenta, except:
A: Placenta weight at term is 470 gB: Round-oval with 22 cm diameter
C: Extraplacental membranes and 2-vesseled umbilical cord present [75%]
D: Central thickness >2.5 cm
What test is not used for testing olfaction?
A: Smell diskettesB: Arnold stick test
C: UPSIT
D: CC-SIT
Which of the following indicators can help determine whether the health system is important to identifying leprosy in the community?
A: Treatment completion rateB: Annual new case detection rate per lac
C: Treatment initiation rate
D: Proportion of newly diagnosed patients with grade 2 disability
All of the following can be used in first-trimester medical termination of pregnancy (MTP), except:
A: Mifepristone + misoprostolB: Manual vacuum aspiration
C: Dilatation and curettage
D: Extra-amniotic instillation of ethacridine lactate
Mode of transmission of abdominal TB includes all except:
A: Direct spread from mesenteric lymph nodesB: Hematogenous spread
C: Feco – oral route
D: Direct contact with infected animal
A woman with eclampsia is started on magnesium sulfate. What is the first sign of magnesium sulfate toxicity?
A: Loss of knee jerkB: Hypotension
C: Respiratory depression
D: Reduced muscle tone
Which of the following regarding the vaccine vial monitor (VVM) is true?
A: It is used for monitoring heat exposure of the vaccine by healthcare workers in primary healthcare.B: It shows cumulative exposure of the vaccine to the heat.
C: It can be used to assess the potential efficacy of the vaccine
D: Both A and B.
E: A,B,C
On Ziehl – Neelsen (ZN) staining oocysts of size 8-10 mm cysts are visible. Identify the organism.
A: IsosporaB: Cryptosporidium
C: Cyclospora
D: Microspora
Which of the following is not a feature of keratoconus?
A: Haab’s striaeB: Munson’s sign
C: Irregular astigmatism
D: Scissoring reflex
Match the following drugs with the targets of their actions.
A. Trastuzumab 1. BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase
B. Infliximab 2. mTOR
C. Sirolimus 3. TNF alpha
D. Imatinib 4. HER2/neu
B: A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
C: A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
D: A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
A patient presents to the casualty following blunt trauma to the chest. A chest X-ray was done. Among the following radiographs, in which case would you further evaluate the patient before putting a chest tube?
1. Diaphragmatic hernia
2. Hemothorax
3. Pneumothorax
4. Flail chest
B: 1
C: 2
D: 3
Which of the following represents a normal response to an OGTT?
B: Brown
C: Blue
D: Red
Which of the following criteria should be satisfied to start MDT?
1. Hypopigmented patch with sensory loss
2. Peripheral nerve thickening
3. Peripheral nerve thickening with sensory loss
4. Skin biopsy demonstrating bacilli
B: 1, 3
C: 1, 3, 4
D: 1, 2, 3, 4
Book test is used to assess the function of adductor pollicis. Which of the following nerves supplies this muscle?
A: Posterior interosseous nerveB: Ulnar nerve
C: Radial nerve
D: Median nerve
Match the following scientists with their discoveries.
1. Walter Reed
2. Edward Jenner
3. James Lind
a. Prevention of scurvy by citrus fruits
b. Yellow fever
c. Smallpox vaccination
B: 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
C: 1-c, 2-b, 3-a
D: 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
What is the age group distribution for vulval cancer?
A: Not age specificB: 35-55 years
C: 55-85 years
D: Both of the above
A child presents with poor growth and swelling at joints. A radiograph of his wrist is given below. Lab investigations reveal serum ALP levels of >1500. What is the possible diagnosis?
B: Rickets
C: Osteogenesis imperfecta
D: Paget's disease
Under the Anaemia Mukt Bharath initiative, mild to moderate anaemia in pregnant women less than 34 weeks of gestation is treated using:
A: 3 iron and folic acid (IFA) tablets, taken ODB: IV iron sucrose for non-compliance with oral tablets
C: 2 iron and folic acid tablets OD+IV iron sucrose
D: IM ferric carboxy maltose (FCM)