Loksewa Central 2081/82 Medical Officer questions with Answer

Questions are extracted from Loksewa (Public Service Commission) Examination for medical officers held on 2081/12/22. Answers are AI generated. Do cross check the answers

1. Medial meniscus is more vulnerable to injury because of:

It's fixity to tibial collateral ligament
It's semicircular shape
Action of adductor magnus
It's attachment to fibrous capsule

2. Biological laboratory values are based on the principle of:

Age
Sex
Ethnicity
Range

3. The first cell to appear in inflammation is:

Mast cell
Macrophage
Basophil
Neutrophil

4. Immune system in the body is activated by:

Ion channels
G-protein receptors
Cytokines
Cell adhesion molecules

5. Fixed oxygen delivery device is:

Venturi mask
Nasal cannula
Nasal mask
Non-breathing mask

6. Which of the following mixture of gases is used in anesthesia?

O₂ and N₂O
O₂ and CO₂
CO₂ and N₂O
O₂, CO₂ and N₂O

7. What do you want to see in an X-ray of a case of suspected fracture before applying plaster?

To examine details of fracture
To examine displacement
To see alignment of fracture ends
To see muscle injury

8. Injury of which nerve is common in supracondylar fracture?

Median nerve
Radial nerve
Ulnar nerve
Axillary nerve

9. Which is not the principle of compound fracture treatment?

Aggressive antibiotic cover
Immediate wound closure
Wound debridement
No tendon repair

10. Which of the following drugs is used to induce general anesthesia?

Midazolam
Lidocaine
Propofol
Fentanyl

11. What is the recommended period for taking a post-coital contraceptive pill after unprotected intercourse?

Within a week
Within 4 days
Within 3 days
Within 5 days

12. The ligamentum teres represents the obliterated:

Ductus arteriosus
Umbilical vein
Ductus venosus
Umbilical artery

13. All of the following hormones are a product of placental synthesis or production, except:

Human Chorionic Gonadotrophin (HCG)
Human Chorionic Somatomammotropin (HCS)
Prolactin
Progesterone

14. Strawberry vagina is seen in:

Syphilis
Candida albicans
Gardnerella vaginalis
Trichomonas vaginalis

15. Treatment of Bartholin's cyst is done by:

Incision and drainage
Manipulation
Marsupialization
Antibiotics

16. Which of the following disease conditions may cause obstructed labor?

Chronic heart disease
Diabetes mellitus
Chronic kidney disease
Rheumatoid arthritis

17. Government of Nepal has designed Basic Emergency Obstetrics Care (BEOC) at the periphery for skilled Birth Attendants. What service is not available from BEOC?

Ambu bag
Blood transfusion
Oxytocin injection
Suction for baby

18. What vaccine is recommended by the national protocol for pregnant mothers?

DPT
Polio
DT
TT

19. A 26-year-old primigravida at 34 weeks of gestation presents with severe headache, visual disturbances, and generalized edema. Her blood pressure is 170/110 mmHg, and urinalysis reveals 3+ proteinuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Initiate antihypertensive therapy and perform cesarean delivery immediately.
Administer magnesium sulfate and prepare for delivery.
Continue observation until 37 weeks of gestation.
Administer corticosteroids and delay delivery for fetal maturity.

20. A 34-year-old G3P2 woman presents at 16 weeks of gestation with complaints of vaginal bleeding and an enlarged uterus for her gestational age. Ultrasound reveals a "snowstorm" pattern with no identifiable fetus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Ectopic pregnancy
Complete hydatidiform mole
Partial hydatidiform mole
Missed abortion

21. Which is the most common childhood cancer?

Brain tumor
Neuroblastoma
Leukemia
Wilm's tumor

22. Which group of organisms is responsible for childhood watery diarrhea?

Bacteria
Fungi
Virus
Rickettsia

23. Which of the following factors increases the risk of ARI in children?

Poor nutrition
Crowded living conditions
Lack of vaccination
All of the above

24. What does Body Mass Index (BMI) measure?

Fat content in the body
Nutritional deficiency
Body weight relative to height
Muscle strength

25. Neonatal period extends up to:

35 days of life
28 days of life
30 days of life
21 days of life

26. Exclusive breastfeeding is recommended at least for:

1 year
9 months
5 months
6 months

27. Koplik's spot is a pathognomonic sign of:

Mumps
Varicella
Measles
Scarlet fever

28. What is the first indicator of protein energy malnutrition?

Underweight for age
Stunting
Wasting
All of the above

29. Oxygenated blood to the fetus is carried by:

Umbilical artery
Umbilical vein
Pulmonary artery
Pulmonary vein

30. A 1-year-old male baby was brought to ER with high fever and fits. The EEG and CSF findings were normal. The most probable diagnosis is:

Epilepsy
Meningitis
Febrile convulsion
Encephalitis

31. The solid waste from hospitals is classified as:

Compostables
Combustibles
Hazardous
Non-hazardous

32. Which of the following health programs has demand-side financing in Nepal?

National immunization program
IMNCI program
Safe motherhood program
Family planning program

33. According to Census 2078, the annual population growth rate of Nepal is:

1.3%
2%
0.92%
0.5%

34. In a health education program, if a group of 10 people are speaking on a topic of common interest, it is called a:

Workshop
Panel discussion
Group discussion
Symposium

35. Which of the following is not a non-communicable disease?

Hypertension
Diabetes mellitus
COPD
Leprosy

36. Odds ratio is related to:

Attributable risk
Incidence
Prevalence
Relative risk

37. The most heat-sensitive vaccine is:

BCG
Polio
Measles
DPT

38. The level of prevention aimed at reducing risk factors is:

Primary prevention
Secondary prevention
Tertiary prevention
Quaternary prevention

39. Which of the following is the most significant benefit of exclusive breastfeeding for the first six months?

Enhances maternal bonding only
Provides all essential nutrients for growth
Reduces the risk of allergies in the mother
Prevents all infections in the baby

40. One of the major challenges in Nepal's health care delivery system is:

Overstaffing of health care facilities
Unequal distribution of health care resources
Excessive health expenditure per capita
Lack of international aid

41. Which agency is responsible for regulating ethical clinical practice for practitioners?

Ministry of Health and Population
Health Professional Council
Nepal Medical Council
Nepal Health Research Council

42. The examination of a dead body taken out of the grave for suspicion of poisoning or other foul play is called:

Exhumation
Post-mortem
Medical examination
Special examination

43. Which of the following is used for establishing identity?

Anthropometry
Dactylography
Hair examination
Blood

44. Diagnosis of ante-mortem drowning is based on:

Paltauf's hemorrhage
Woods and grass in clenched hands
Emphysema aquosum
Water in esophagus

45. What is the primary role of forensic medicine?

Treatment of the injured
Investigation of the cause of death
Development of medical treatments
None of the above

46. Which article in the present Constitution of Nepal contains rights related to health?

Article-36
Article-38
Article-35
Article-39

47. The span of the second long-term health plan in Nepal was:

5 years
10 years
15 years
20 years

48. According to the Safe Abortion Act Nepal, a pregnant woman with her consent shall have the right to get a safe abortion service up to:

9 weeks
12 weeks
18 weeks
28 weeks

49. According to the Nepal Medical Council Act 2020, a medical practitioner’s registration can be canceled if:

The person was registered fraudulently
The person is mentally incapable
The person severely violates medical ethics
All of the above

50. According to the Nepal Medical Council, which of the following is required for a medical professional to practice in Nepal?

A medical degree from a foreign university
A recommendation from a health facility
An internship at an international hospital
Registration with the Nepal Medical Council

51. During blood transfusion, the patient develops fever and pain at the infusion site. Your action is:

Slow infusion + antibiotics
Slow infusion + acetaminophen
Stop infusion + crystalloid fluid
Stop infusion + monitor + acetaminophen

52. During a seizure, which position is recommended for the patient to minimize the risk of aspiration?

Supine
Left lateral
Prone
Right lateral

53. What is the standard treatment of compartment syndrome for a case of RTA?

Fluid replacement
Immobilization of affected part
Decompression
Elevation of the affected part

54. Antidote for acetaminophen is:

Naloxone
Atropine
Acetylcysteine
Flumazenil

55. A 22-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. He is conscious but confused. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, heart rate is 135/min, and respiratory rate is 24/min. There is no external bleeding, but FAST reveals free fluid in the abdomen. Which of the following is the next best step in management?

Perform diagnostic peritoneal lavage
Administer IV fluids and obtain CT scan of the abdomen
Immediate laparotomy
Administer vasopressors

56. Which of the following poisoning causes aspiration pneumonia in children?

Mushroom
Heavy metal
Kerosene
Organophosphorus

57. Which of the following antiepileptic drugs is given by the intranasal route?

Midazolam
Diazepam
Clobazam
Nitrazepam

58. A metabolic acidosis with an increased anion gap is not characteristic of poisoning with:

Methanol
Paracetamol
Aspirin
Ethylene glycol

59. Which of the following hormones is known as the emergency hormone?

Adrenaline
Cortisol
Growth hormone
Thyroid hormone

60. A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic with fever, chills, and flank pain. Urinalysis confirms the presence of white blood cells and bacteria. She is diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis caused by Escherichia coli. The pathogen is found to produce Extended Spectrum Beta-Lactamases (ESBL). Which of the following is the best antibiotic choice?

Ceftriaxone
Amoxicillin
Vancomycin
Meropenem

61. What is the causative agent of scabies?

Sarcoptes scabiei
Sand fly
Echinococcus
Bacteroides

62. Which one is the most potent topical glucocorticoid preparation?

Clobetasol propionate 0.05%
Fluocinolone acetonide 0.025%
Clobetasone butyrate 0.05%
Betamethasone valerate 0.1%

63. What happens when the arrector pili muscle contracts?

Goosebumps
Sweat is released from sweat glands
Hair is shed
Skin color changes

64. The "oil drop" phenomenon is seen in:

Lichen planus of nails
Clubbing
Psoriasis of nails
Tinea unguium

65. A 45-year-old man presents with hypopigmented, anesthetic patches on his left arm. He also has thickened ulnar nerves on examination. A skin biopsy shows acid-fast bacilli. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Tinea versicolor
Leprosy (Hansen's disease)
Vitiligo
Cutaneous tuberculosis

66. How might a patient appear if they display a complete lack of interest in their environment?

Apathetic
Obsessive
Hostile
Distracted

67. Which one of the following is not a psychological symptom of anxiety disorder?

Irritability
Fear of impending diseases
Tremors
Depersonalization

68. What precaution must be taken in the first two weeks of initiation of antidepressant medication for severely depressed patients?

Drug adherence
Possible suicidal attempts
Side effects
Mood change

69. Pseudodementia is seen in:

Depression
Alcoholism
Schizophrenia
Mania

70. The Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) is primarily used to assess:

Mood disorders
Anxiety levels
Cognitive function
Psychotic symptoms

71. If a person has an ischemic stroke, how quickly should that person be treated to minimize long-term problems?

Within 30 minutes
Within 1 hour
Within 2 hours
Within 3 hours

72. What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia?

Pneumococcal pneumoniae
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus
Salmonella

73. What is the primary function of beta-blockers in cardiovascular diseases?

Increase blood pressure
Reduce heart rate and blood pressure
Lower cholesterol levels
Prevent blood clot formation

74. What is the most important long-term complication of streptococcal throat infection in children?

Chronic tonsillitis
No long-term complication
Rheumatic heart disease
Irritable bowel syndrome

75. The most common acute presentation of sickle cell anemia is:

Splenomegaly
Bone pain
Priapism
Fever

76. Upper motor neuron lesion is characterized by:

Weakness and spasticity
Rigidity
Fasciculations
Localized muscle atrophy

77. HbA1C level in blood explains:

Hepatorenal syndrome
Long-term status of blood sugar
Acute rise of sugar
Chronic pancreatitis

78. Which electrolyte abnormality is most commonly seen in acute kidney injury (AKI)?

Hypokalemia
Hyperkalemia
Hypocalcemia

79. Which of the following conditions may cause complete atrioventricular block?

Malaria
Sarcoidosis
Aortic stenosis
Buerger's disease

80. Which of the following diseases is reportable based on international health regulations?

Cholera
Typhoid
Leprosy
Kala-azar

81. A case presented with a history of black stool. What information do you ask to confirm if this is a case of GI bleeding?

NSAID intake
Pantoprazole intake
Iron intake
Zinc intake

82. What is the most common cause of hematuria in children?

Infection
Stone in the lower urinary tract
Congenital defect
Systemic infection

83. Signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism are commonly produced by all of the following conditions, except:

Grave's disease
Toxic nodular goitre
Subacute thyroiditis
Hashimoto's thyroiditis

84. Foot ulcers secondary to arterial insufficiency are successfully treated by all of the following, except:

Debridement of devitalized tissue
Elevation of affected extremity
Antibiotic administration
Avoidance of pressure on the heel

85. Red currant jelly stools are seen in:

Hemorrhoids
Gastric ulcer
Ulcerative colitis
Intussusception

86. Shock is clinically best assessed by:

Urine output
Hydration level
Central venous pressure (CVP)
Blood pressure (BP)

87. A 47-year-old overweight woman complains of acute upper abdominal pain, stooping and bending forward for relief. She also reports vomiting and low-grade fever. She was later diagnosed with pancreatitis. What is the likely cause?

Trauma
Drug-induced
Alcohol use
Gallstones

88. Which of the following is not true about amoebic liver abscess?

More common in females
Metronidazole is the mainstay of treatment
Multifocal abscess cannot be treated by aspiration
More common in the left side

89. Which of the following is true regarding tension pneumothorax?

Causes a mediastinal shift toward the affected side
Managed by needle decompression in the midclavicular line of the 4th intercostal space
Characterized by hyperresonance on the affected side
Chest X-ray is mandatory before treatment

90. A 35-year-old woman with a history of peptic ulcer disease presents with sudden onset of severe epigastric pain radiating to the back. She is febrile, tachycardic, and hypotensive. An upright abdominal X-ray reveals free air under the diaphragm. What is the next step in management?

Initiate proton pump inhibitors and observe
Perform an emergency laparotomy
Order a CT scan of the abdomen
Administer antibiotics and manage conservatively

91. What advice do you give for a case of chronic suppurative otitis media?

Take medicine as advised
Surgery
Need to visit frequently to change antibiotics
Keep ear dry

92. The most common dislocation of the temporomandibular joint (TMD) is:

Anterior
Posterior
Medial
Lateral

93. Maggots in the nose are best treated by:

Chloroform diluted with water
Lignocaine spray
Systemic antibiotics
Liquid paraffin

94. When do you refer a case of red eye to an ophthalmologist?

Itching
Thick discharge
Impaired vision
Fever

95. The earliest symptom to occur in corneal ulcer is:

Pain
Photophobia
Loss of sensation
Diminished vision

96. Most cases of astigmatism can be treated with:

Corrective eye glasses or contacts
Laser surgery
Fluorescein angiography
Injection of fluid into the eye

97. A red, painful eye with a mid-dilated, fixed pupil is most likely indicative of:

Conjunctivitis
Acute angle closure glaucoma
Uveitis
Keratitis

98. Dental caries are due to:

Viral infection
Bacterial infection
Contaminated water
Hereditary causes

99. Fluoride is effective in caries prevention because:

It is easily digestible
It stimulates saliva
All patients get fluoride through public water supply
It favors remineralization over demineralization in the caries process

100. What is the choice of antibiotics to treat dental conditions?

Ampicillin
Aminoglycosides
Chloramphenicol
Betadine oral gargle

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