MEC Common Entrance Exam (MD/MS) 2022
Click on the Options to reveal answers.MEDICINE
1. A 46-year-old male presents with a history of falling from a tree. Upon examination, he is diagnosed with Brown-Séquard syndrome. Which of the following findings is true regarding this syndrome?
Correct Answer: b
2. Which of the following is most appropriate for the treatment of von Willebrand factor (vWF) deficiency?
Correct Answer: d
3. A young girl presents with heavy menstrual bleeding and microcytic RBCs on a peripheral blood smear. Which type of anemia is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: a
4. A 42-year-old teacher presents with gum bleeding for 6 months and bilaterally symmetrical petechiae on the legs and palate. A diagnosis of von Willebrand disease (vWD) is supported by an abnormality in which parameter?
Correct Answer: c
5. A 67-year-old male presents with a gradual onset of forgetfulness that exceeds his usual baseline. What is the correct term for this condition?
Correct Answer: b
6. A patient presents with a cough, shortness of breath, joint pain, and swelling. A chest X-ray reveals hilar calcification, and the serum calcium level is 12.5 mg/dl. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
7. In a patient with high anion gap metabolic acidosis (HAGMA), which of the following is the most likely cause?
Correct Answer: b
8. Which of the following parameters is indicative of pre-renal Acute Kidney Injury (AKI)?
Correct Answer: a
9. In the management of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), which of the following ECG findings is a contraindication to fibrinolysis?
Correct Answer: c
10. A 42-year-old patient presents to the ER with shortness of breath. Examination shows a drop in systolic BP > 10 mmHg during the inspiratory phase. What is this clinical sign called?
Correct Answer: a
11. A patient presents with jaundice, abdominal pain, and ascites. Labs show AST (110 IU), ALT (150 IU), direct bilirubin (1 mg/dl), total bilirubin (4 mg/dl), and albumin (200 mg/dl). What is the provisional diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
12. A 20-year-old male presents for a checkup. Physical findings include a long, narrow face, large ears, a prominent jaw and forehead, unusually flexible fingers, flat feet, and macroorchidism. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: d
13. A patient presents to the ER with vomiting, tachypnea, and altered sensorium, later diagnosed as Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA). Which type of insulin should be used for management?
Correct Answer: b
14. A 45-year-old male presents with shortness of breath. Examination reveals decreased breath sounds, muffled heart sounds, pulsus paradoxus, and hypotension. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: a
15. A patient presents with a fever of several days, malaise, night sweats, and arthralgia. Examination reveals a prominent unilateral posterior occipital lymph node. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: a
16. A hypertensive patient presents with headaches, polyuria, muscle cramps, fatigue, and excessive thirst. Labs reveal hypokalemia and hypernatremia. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: d
17. An adolescent female presents with excessive menstrual bleeding, recurrent epistaxis, and pallor. Her platelet count and PT are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
18. Which of the following conditions is NOT typically associated with Hepatitis C?
Correct Answer: a
19. A 60-year-old male presents with a history of trauma and is diagnosed with an epidural hemorrhage. What is the standard line of management?
Correct Answer: b
20. What is the most important parameter for monitoring adequate postoperative hydration?
Correct Answer: c
21. A patient presents to the emergency department with blood at the urethral meatus, pelvic pain, and perineal swelling with redness. X-ray confirms a pelvic fracture. Which type of urethral injury is most likely?
Correct Answer: a
22. A woman presents with sudden onset headache and photophobia, but no neck rigidity. She has no history of hypertension or vascular issues. Her father died from a ruptured intracranial aneurysm. If her CT scan is normal, what is the next best investigation?
Correct Answer: a
23. In which of the following scenarios is breast-conserving surgery NOT possible?
Correct Answer: d
24. A pathological specimen reveals skip lesions, intramural involvement, crypt abscesses, and granulomas. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
25. A 46-year-old female presents with burns sustained 4 hours ago involving the anterior of both lower limbs, the entire anterior trunk, and the entire right upper limb. What is the total burn percentage?
Correct Answer: b
26. You are managing a trauma case where the GCS is less than 4. What is the most immediate next step?
Correct Answer: b
27. A patient with advanced gastric cancer is found to have a solitary nodule in the right lobe of the liver during follow-up. What is the management plan at this stage?
Correct Answer: c
28. A 3-year-old boy presents with a well-defined, painless mass on the supratemporal rim near the right eyebrow that has been present since birth. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: a
29. A euthyroid patient presents with a single painless thyroid nodule that moves with deglutition. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
30. A 2-year-old boy is brought to the ER with acute scrotal pain and swelling. Testicular torsion is suspected. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer: a
31. Following surgery for thyroid cancer, a patient is found to have bilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury. What is the most common symptom?
Correct Answer: b
32. A patient presents with a palpable, pulsatile mass in the supraclavicular region; lifting weights causes the hand to become pale. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
33. In a trauma case where an abdominal injury is suspected and exploratory laparotomy is required, which incision is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: b
34. Which of the following is an advantage of monofilament sutures compared to polyfilament sutures?
Correct Answer: d
35. During surgery, the apex of the sigmoid mesocolon is used as an anatomical landmark to identify which structure?
Correct Answer: b
36. A 13-year-old boy presents with sudden, severe scrotal pain that began while playing football. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
37. For a mother presenting with premature, pre-labor rupture of membranes (PPROM) for more than 12 hours, what is the management of choice?
Correct Answer: b
38. Which of the following is the best parameter for monitoring the progress of labor?
Correct Answer: b
39. During the delivery of a breech pregnancy, when is the appropriate time to perform an episiotomy?
Correct Answer: c
40. A lady presents with a history of recurrent pregnancy loss and coagulopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
41. A 25-year-old woman undergoing infertility treatment presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
42. A 45-year-old woman presents with hot flashes, vaginal dryness, dyspareunia, headaches, night sweats, and mood changes. What is the first-line treatment?
Correct Answer: c
43. Which phase of the menstrual cycle is most consistent in duration across various cycle lengths?
Correct Answer: c
44. Which of the following is considered the best contraceptive method during lactation?
Correct Answer: b
45. A woman presents with excessive menstrual bleeding and abdominal pain and is diagnosed with uterine fibroids. Which type of fibroid is most commonly associated with these symptoms?
Correct Answer: b
46. An infertile woman is found to have bilateral cornual block on hysterosalpingography (HSG). What is the next best step in management?
Correct Answer: c
47. A 25-year-old primigravida presents to the ER with fever and foul-smelling vaginal discharge following a 10-day history of ruptured membranes. Examination shows hypotension, high-grade fever, lethargy, and purulent discharge. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
48. What is the primary mechanism of action of a third-generation, progesterone-containing intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD)?
Correct Answer: d
49. At what age does an infant typically begin to recognize familiar faces?
Correct Answer: c
50. A 13-year-old boy presents with cough, shortness of breath, and respiratory distress triggered by seasonal changes and pollen. There is no family history of atopy or personal history of eczema. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
51. A 7-year-old boy suddenly develops choking, shortness of breath, and respiratory distress after consuming peanuts while playing. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
52. A newborn presents with a tuft of hair over the skin in the spinal region. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
53. A 5-year-old girl presents to the ER with shortness of breath, bilateral leg swelling, and coryza. She is afebrile. Physical exam reveals an impalpable apex beat, and chest X-ray shows an enlarged pericardial silhouette. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
54. A 5-year-old child presents with fever and a congested pharynx. On the fourth day, the fever subsides and a rash appears. Post-cervical lymph nodes are palpable. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
55. A 3-month-old child is diagnosed with painless, bilateral indirect inguinal hernias. When should surgical repair be performed?
Correct Answer: c
56. A baby presents with abdominal distension, constipation, and signs of intestinal obstruction. Hirschsprung disease is suspected. What is the definitive diagnostic investigation?
Correct Answer: c
57. A 10-day-old premature infant presents with lethargy, abdominal distension, decreased feeding, and blood in the stool. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
58. A 7-year-old child presents with abdominal pain, hematuria, and bluish discoloration (purpura) on the thighs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
59. A 12-year-old female presents with sneezing, nasal itching, and congestion triggered by dust and pollen exposure. These symptoms vary seasonally. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
60. A child presents with hematuria, hearing loss, eyelid chemosis, and blurred vision. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
61. A young patient presents with bilateral heel pain, lumbar pain with limited spinal mobility, and early morning stiffness that improves with exercise. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
62. A 39-year-old male fell while playing football. Initial swelling and pain in the right knee subsided after 2-3 days, but he now has increased pain, loss of range of motion, and inability to resume activity. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
63. A patient with a history of childhood elbow trauma presents with elbow deformity, hypothenar muscle wasting, and decreased sensation in the medial two fingers. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
64. Following an injury near the right wrist, a patient develops a specific deformity. Which deformity is most likely?
Correct Answer: c
65. What is the standard management for an open tibial fracture presenting to the emergency department?
Correct Answer: c
66. A neurological evaluation reveals paraplegia, atrophy of the lower limbs, and loss of knee and ankle jerks. If cauda equina syndrome is suspected, where is the lesion located?
Correct Answer: b
67. Which components constitute the "lethal triad" in trauma patients?
Correct Answer: b
68. A patient presents with a tibial fracture and an open wound where the bone is visible. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer: c
69. Which artery is at greatest risk of injury during a fracture of the humeral head?
Correct Answer: c
70. A 7-year-old child presents with a 3-day history of fever and hip pain. Physical examination reveals a positive FABER test. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
71. A 40-year-old male presents with profuse epistaxis. The bleeding site cannot be visualized on anterior nasal examination. What is the next best step?
Correct Answer: c
72. What is the most common presenting symptom of glottic carcinoma of the larynx?
Correct Answer: c
73. The phenomenon where auditory symptoms are exacerbated by loud sounds is known as:
Correct Answer: c
74. A 34-year-old female presents with sneezing, nasal itching, and congestion triggered by exposure to dust and pollen. The symptoms vary by season. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
75. A patient is diagnosed with squamous-type chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM). What is the appropriate surgical management?
Correct Answer: b
76. Which of the following is considered the gold standard non-surgical management for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?
Correct Answer: b
77. Which investigation is the best tool for monitoring and evaluating obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?
Correct Answer: c
78. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma (NPC) is strongly associated with which of the following viral infections?
Correct Answer: b
79. In a patient suspected of having non-organic (functional) hearing loss, which OPD-based test is used for evaluation?
Correct Answer: c
80. A patient previously treated for otitis media now presents with hearing loss, vertigo, and nausea. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
81. A very young child presents with a well-circumscribed, white polypoidal mass containing calcifications projecting into the vitreous. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
82. A patient presents with painless discharge and blurring of vision. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
83. What is the initial treatment of choice for a newborn presenting with congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction?
Correct Answer: b
84. Which structure of the eye possesses the highest refractive power?
Correct Answer: d
85. A patient presents with left-sided vision loss in both eyes (left homonymous hemianopia). Where is the lesion most likely located in the visual pathway?
Correct Answer: b
86. A 70-year-old patient presents with painless, blurred vision. Retinoscopy reveals flame-shaped hemorrhages. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: a
87. A 45-year-old male presents with right lower limb numbness and a history of previous right-sided weakness. He also reports blurred vision specifically while bathing with hot water. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: d
88. Which of the following anesthetic agents is contraindicated in a patient with bronchial asthma?
Correct Answer: b
89. In anesthesia, the "sniffing position" is best described as:
Correct Answer: c
90. A patient develops urinary retention following the administration of a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockade. Which drug is used for reversal?
Correct Answer: b
91. Which oxygen delivery device is most suitable for providing a fixed and predetermined concentration of oxygen?
Correct Answer: b
92. During anesthetic induction, the process of replacing alveolar nitrogen with oxygen to prolong the safe period of apnea is called:
Correct Answer: b
93. Which of the following is currently the most commonly used drug for tracheal intubation?
Correct Answer: d
94. Which of the following is the inhalational anesthetic agent of choice for pediatric patients?
Correct Answer: c
95. A 25-year-old female presents with shortness of breath, chest tightness, palpitations, and a feeling of impending doom. What is the provisional diagnosis?
Correct Answer: d
96. A 10-year-old boy frequently fights at school, bullies peers, harms animals, and lacks remorse. What type of behavioral problem does he likely have?
Correct Answer: a
97. Which of the following features most reliably differentiates psychosis from neurosis?
Correct Answer: c
98. A patient on long-term atypical antipsychotics develops rapid eye blinking, chewing motions, and repetitive finger movements. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
99. A 35-year-old female reports mood swings, anxiety, and insomnia occurring 2–3 days before each menstrual period. What is the drug of choice for this condition?
Correct Answer: b
100. A chronic alcoholic presents with restlessness, palpitations, agitation, and tremors after 6 hours of abstinence. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer: a
101. A 29-year-old woman is violent, aggressive, and abusive in the psychiatric OPD. What is the next step in her management?
Correct Answer: c
102. Which of the following structures forms the right border of the lung hilum on a chest X-ray?
Correct Answer: c
103. X-ray findings showing cupping and splaying of the metaphysis are most characteristic of which diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
104. A patient's serum creatinine increases by more than 25% from baseline 48 hours after receiving IV contrast. What is the recommended management?
Correct Answer: a
105. Radiation therapy primarily causes cell death through which mechanism?
Correct Answer: c
106. A patient presents with vomiting, abdominal pain, distension, and constipation. An abdominal X-ray reveals multiple central air-fluid levels. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
107. A patient recently treated for COVID-19 develops new symptoms of pneumonia two weeks into isolation. What is the investigation of choice?
Correct Answer: c
108. A CT scan of a CVA patient shows a hemorrhage in the right Sylvian fissure. What is the most common source of bleeding in this location?
Correct Answer: c
109. A patient presents with a long-standing, painless, and anesthetic skin lesion. Physical exam reveals a thickened, palpable ulnar nerve. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
110. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) is classified as which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
Correct Answer: c
111. A 28-year-old patient presents with flat, purplish, itchy rashes on the pretibial region of the lower leg. Nail changes are also noted. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: d
112. A teenager presents with a thin, foul-smelling, yellow-greenish vaginal discharge and pruritus. She is currently using Doxycycline for facial lesions. What is the most likely cause?
Correct Answer: c
113. A school-aged child presents with patchy hair loss. Which investigation is most appropriate to diagnose the cause?
Correct Answer: d
114. A woman presents with vaginal discharge and burning micturition. Examination shows infection of both the vagina and cervix. From which site should the sample be taken for investigation?
Correct Answer: b
115. Which of the following skin lesions is specifically associated with Tuberculosis infection?
Correct Answer: d
116. At what point during intrauterine life does the uteroplacental circulation begin?
Correct Answer: d
117. When palpating a patient with splenomegaly, which anatomical landmark is felt?
Correct Answer: c
118. After supplying the parotid gland, the retromandibular vein contributes to the formation of which vein?
Correct Answer: b
119. Which of the following arteries is ligated during a left hemicolectomy?
Correct Answer: c
120. Which nerve block can be utilized to manage severe abdominal pain associated with chronic pancreatitis?
Correct Answer: b
121. Which part of the gall bladder is entirely covered by the peritoneum?
Correct Answer: c
122. A patient presents with pain, numbness, and loss of sensation over the outer aspect of the thigh. Which nerve is most likely affected?
Correct Answer: c
123. A patient reporting intermittent claudication experiences pain and cramping in the calf during exertion. What is the primary source of this problem?
Correct Answer: c
124. An injury to the external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve would affect which of the following muscles?
Correct Answer: b
125. Which of the following describes the boundaries of the femoral canal?
Correct Answer: a
126. Scalp injuries generally heal more quickly than injuries at other sites. What is the primary reason for this rapid healing?
Correct Answer: b
127. A patient presents with a loss of sensation over the gluteal region and the sole of the foot. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
128. According to the sources, the short-term regulation of blood pressure is maintained by the:
Correct Answer: c
129. Which of the following structural proteins is primarily responsible for maintaining the biconcave shape of an RBC?
Correct Answer: a
130. A patient with a 5 cm mass in the upper pole of the kidney has a Hb of 24 g/dl, while other lab values are normal. What is the most likely cause of the elevated hemoglobin?
Correct Answer: b
131. In a case of severe asthma with a "silent chest," decreased respiration observed after hyperventilation is primarily due to:
Correct Answer: c
132. A 41-year-old male has a cardiac output of 3.5 L/min, a heart rate of 95 bpm, and an ejection fraction (EF) of 0.4. What is his end-diastolic volume (EDV)?
Correct Answer: c
133. During a cardiac procedure, pressure in the superior vena cava reaches 5 mmHg. Which substance is released in response to the stretching of the atrial walls?
Correct Answer: a
134. Parasympathetic supply to the eye originates from the ciliary ganglion. What is the associated nucleus for this pathway?
Correct Answer: b
135. Which part of the brain is responsible for controlling body temperature?
Correct Answer: b
136. When environmental carbon monoxide (CO) levels exceed the threshold, what is the most common initial symptom?
Correct Answer: b
137. Which system in the brain is primarily responsible for controlling emotions?
Correct Answer: c
138. During a neurological exam, improvement in two-point discrimination is achieved through which physiological mechanism?
Correct Answer: b
139. Which proprioceptor provides information during the isometric contraction/relation of skeletal muscle?
Correct Answer: b
140. A histopathological sample reveals hair, muscle, and bone within the same specimen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
141. Which condition is characterized by a "bone-in-bone" appearance on an X-ray?
Correct Answer: c
142. Which of the following disorders is NOT characterized by abnormal protein or metal deposition in the liver?
Correct Answer: c
143. Which type of parotid tumor is most likely to involve or invade the facial nerve?
Correct Answer: c
144. A lady presents with fever and a painful thyroid gland. Radioactive iodine uptake is less than 1%. What is the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
145. Dark mottling dots seen on light microscopy following a myocardial infarction are due to:
Correct Answer: a
146. Which statement regarding nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is true?
Correct Answer: c
147. What is the most common site for penile carcinoma?
Correct Answer: c
148. Chemotherapeutic agents are often emetogenic because they stimulate which specific receptors?
Correct Answer: c
149. In a patient with pneumonia that is resistant to vancomycin, what is the next appropriate drug to use?
Correct Answer: c
150. Which drug serves as both an anti-helminthic and an immunomodulatory agent?
Correct Answer: b
151. Which class of drugs should ideally be administered alongside morphine to manage side effects?
Correct Answer: c
152. All of the following are hepatic enzyme inducers EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: c
153. Which of the following drugs is considered cardioprotective in cases of congestive cardiac failure?
Correct Answer: c
154. A patient in the ER presents with hypotension and hypovolemia after prolonged diuretic use. Which of the following is NOT a cause of hypokalemia?
Correct Answer: c
155. An elderly patient develops diarrhea, abdominal cramps, and nausea after 10 days of antibiotic therapy for a respiratory infection. Which drug is used to treat this condition?
Correct Answer: c
156. In the management of hyperkalemia, which of the following is NOT used to actually reduce the potassium levels in the blood?
Correct Answer: c
157. A person traveling to a malaria-endemic area has an unknown G6PD status. Which drug should be prescribed for malaria prophylaxis?
Correct Answer: c
158. A newly married woman with a history of dyslipidemia seeks contraceptive advice. What is the most appropriate method for her?
Correct Answer: c
159. The ability of drugs that are impermeable to the cell membrane to cross depends primarily on which property?
Correct Answer: c
160. During periods of starvation, what does the brain use as its primary source of fuel other than glucose?
Correct Answer: c
161. An elderly male patient presents with increased urinary frequency, nocturia, and difficulty both starting and stopping the urinary stream. Which of the following is the most potent hormone responsible for developing the cause of these symptoms?
Correct Answer: b
162. A defect in carnitine metabolism primarily leads to which of the following conditions?
Correct Answer: a
163. Which of the following conditions results from a failure to repair double-strand breaks in DNA?
Correct Answer: c
164. Which of the following hormones exerts its primary action by increasing the intracellular cAMP system?
Correct Answer: b
165. When performing a hormonal study to evaluate the menstrual cycle, on which day is the FSH level typically tested?
Correct Answer: a
166. A 50-year-old male is diagnosed with a cataract. Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for the formation of the cataract in this case?
Correct Answer: b
167. A 27-year-old female has been using combined oral contraceptive pills (OCP) for 7 years. Which of the following is a potential side effect?
Correct Answer: a
168. As a healthcare professional, you know the normal flora of the body. Which site is the most common location for Staphylococcus aureus?
Correct Answer: c
169. A diabetic patient presents with a foot lesion diagnosed as necrotizing fasciitis. Which organism is most commonly responsible for this condition?
Correct Answer: b
170. Most dimorphic fungi can convert from mold to yeast forms under specific lab conditions. Which of the following is NOT a dimorphic fungus?
Correct Answer: b
171. Haemophilus influenzae is a fastidious, gram-negative organism. What is the standard culture medium used for its growth?
Correct Answer: c
172. In a patient suspected of having infective endocarditis, what is the recommended blood culture method to confirm the diagnosis?
Correct Answer: a
173. A traveler presents with a 2-day history of scanty, mucoid loose motions associated with abdominal cramps and tenesmus. He is febrile but has no blood in his stool. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: a
174. A patient presents with nausea and vomiting 1 to 2 hours after eating a burger at a restaurant. Which organism is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: b
175. Which of the following methods is used to sterilize culture medium plates and dishes?
Correct Answer: b
176. Hospital-acquired infections, also known as nosocomial infections, are a major concern. What is the most common route for these infections?
Correct Answer: b
177. What is the term for the time period between the detection of a disease by a screening test and its detection through the onset of symptoms?
Correct Answer: b
178. The combined beliefs of a group of individuals to act as a whole and the desired outcomes emerging from those actions is known as:
Correct Answer: c
179. In a specific data distribution, the mean is 9, the median is 6.8, and the mode is 3.4. This distribution is categorized as:
Correct Answer: b
180. Which of the following agents is commonly found in floor cleaners?
Correct Answer: c
181. A researcher sets a hypothesis before analysis. The p-value results in 0.03–0.04, and the null hypothesis is accepted. Which statement is true?
Correct Answer: c
182. In a study on protein requirements, the mean is 40 g/day and the standard deviation is 10. What is the calculated daily requirement for protein?
Correct Answer: c
183. Which of the following diseases is likely to spread via drinking water from a well situated only 10 meters from a latrine?
Correct Answer: c
184. Which of the following is a recognized measure of dispersion?
Correct Answer: b
185. A study involves 2000 cancer patients who are asked about their past exposure to radiation. What kind of study is this?
Correct Answer: c
186. Upon postmortem examination of a poisoning victim, a "red velvet" stomach is found. Which poison was likely ingested?
Correct Answer: b
187. During a postmortem, a ligature mark is found above the thyroid cartilage, with contusions on the sternocleidomastoid muscle and the thyroid cornu. What is the most likely cause of death?
Correct Answer: b
188. A person with a stab wound to the chest also has cuts on the ulnar side of the forearm. What is the forensic significance of these forearm cuts?
Correct Answer: a
189. Which of the following is NOT determined by evaluating postmortem lividity (hypostasis)?
Correct Answer: c
190. A patient in the ER has ingested paracetamol, opium, and insecticide. Symptoms include difficulty breathing, flushing, constricted pupils, and unconsciousness. What is the primary cause of these specific symptoms?
Correct Answer: b
191. Medical activities are bound by ethics. In which of the following scenarios can medical ethics be ethically breached?
Correct Answer: d
192. Which of the following statements is true regarding patient confidentiality?
Correct Answer: d
193. A doctor prescribes 500 mg of paracetamol TID. The pharmacist provides 250 mg tablets but fails to label the instructions to double the dosage. This is classified as:
Correct Answer: a
194. In the scenario where a pharmacist fails to label dosage changes for a 250 mg substitute of a 500 mg prescription, what is the primary ethical issue?
Correct Answer: c
195. When counseling an adolescent patient, which of the following is the most important factor to consider?
Correct Answer: d
196. Which treatment guideline is appropriate for a terminal illness with a poor prognosis where death is imminent?
Correct Answer: a
197. Which of the following best describes the appropriate duration for quarantine during a pandemic?
Correct Answer: c
198. Which of the following procedures is NOT included in Basic Life Support (BLS)?
Correct Answer: b
199. While performing CPR on a patient in cardiac arrest, which of the following is considered a FALSE sign of revival?
Correct Answer: b
200. Which of the following features suggests that CPR should be stopped in an unconscious patient?
Correct Answer: b