MEC Common Entrance Exam (MD/MS) 2024/2025
Click on the Options to reveal answers1. Which of the following culture media is specifically used to differentiate between lactose-fermenting and non-lactose-fermenting bacteria?
Correct Answer: c
2. Which of the following methods is the most effective for ensuring the complete destruction of bacterial spores?
Correct Answer: d
3. In the life cycle of Plasmodium, which stage is transmitted from the mosquito to the human host?
Correct Answer: c
4. Which of the following anatomical locations is most commonly lined by pseudostratified columnar epithelium?
Correct Answer: b
5. Which artery provides the primary blood supply to the gallbladder?
Correct Answer: d
6. Which of the following arteries is the primary source of blood for the fundus of the stomach?
Correct Answer: a
7. Which of the following is a retroperitoneal organ that functions exclusively as an endocrine gland?
Correct Answer: b
8. In coronary artery anatomy, what defines a "left-dominant" circulation?
Correct Answer: a
9. What is considered the weakest part of the posterior pharyngeal wall, located below the level of the vocal cords?
Correct Answer: c
10. The wrinkled appearance (rugosity) and darker pigmentation of the scrotum are primarily due to the action of which muscle?
Correct Answer: b
11. What is the primary cause of an imperforate anus during fetal development?
Correct Answer: d
12. Which of the following structures is a vestigial remnant of the paramesonephric (Müllerian) duct in males?
Correct Answer: a
13. In which of the following sites does heme synthesis primarily occur?
Correct Answer: c
14. According to Fick's principle, cardiac output is calculated based on:
Correct Answer: b
15. In a patient developing hypoesthesia, which of the following sensations is typically the first to be lost?
Correct Answer: d
16. Which of the following is a direct thrombin inhibitor?
Correct Answer: b
17. Which of the following is the longest-acting corticosteroid?
Correct Answer: c
18. Which of the following is a known effect of corticosteroid therapy on a complete blood count (CBC)?
Correct Answer: b
19. Which of the following antifungal agents exerts its action by forming pores in the fungal cell membrane, leading to the leakage of intracellular contents?
Correct Answer: c
20. In an alcoholic individual who requires increasing amounts of alcohol to achieve the same effect, the phenomenon is known as:
Correct Answer: b
21. What is the most important factor when selecting a "Personal drug" (P-drug) for a patient?
Correct Answer: d
22. What is the primary mechanism by which corticosteroids exert their anti-inflammatory effects in conditions like asthma?
Correct Answer: c
23. In amyloidosis, a waxy, pale appearance of the spleen due to diffuse deposition in the sinusoids is called:
Correct Answer: b
24. Which hemoglobin type is typically increased as a compensatory mechanism in beta thalassemia trait?
Correct Answer: d
25. Which organelle is primarily responsible for regulating the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis?
Correct Answer: c
26. A 45-year-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis has a lung biopsy revealing caseous necrosis with calcification. This is an example of:
Correct Answer: b
27. Which hypersensitivity reaction is responsible for the development of erythroblastosis fetalis?
Correct Answer: b
28. Which enzyme is most likely involved in increased lipogenesis following a high-carbohydrate meal?
Correct Answer: c
29. What is the gold standard test for diagnosing Sickle Cell Hemoglobin (HbS)?
Correct Answer: a
30. What is the correct sequence of steps for the flow of proteins destined for extracellular export?
Correct Answer: b
31. In the sputum of a patient with bronchial asthma, Curschmann spirals are primarily composed of:
Correct Answer: b
32. Which of the following is considered the best investigation for diagnosing congenital rubella in a newborn?
Correct Answer: c
33. A 4-year-old child presents with hepatomegaly and hypotonia. A biopsy reveals glycogen-like substance accumulation in the lysosomes. What is the most likely enzyme defect?
Correct Answer: b
34. The Widal test, used in the diagnosis of typhoid fever, is categorized as which type of diagnostic test?
Correct Answer: d
35. The process of sterilizing liquids by heating them to 63°C for 30 minutes to eliminate pathogens without destroying nutritional value is known as:
Correct Answer: c
36. Which culture medium is most appropriate for the isolation of Escherichia coli O157:H7 from a stool sample?
Correct Answer: a
37. Which of the following is the standard culture medium used for antibiotic sensitivity testing via the disc diffusion method?
Correct Answer: b
38. What is the primary pathological mechanism by which Rotavirus causes diarrhea?
Correct Answer: a
39. Which of the following organisms is indole-negative, distinguishing it from other members of its genus?
Correct Answer: d
40. Which method is most commonly used to sterilize heat-sensitive vaccines?
Correct Answer: b
41. Which culture medium is specifically enriched with lysed red blood cells to support the growth of Haemophilus and Neisseria species?
Correct Answer: b
42. A patient develops multiple draining sinuses in the leg following a thorn prick injury several months ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
43. When attempting to isolate the causative organism from a liver abscess, where is the yield likely to be highest?
Correct Answer: b
44. The volume of distribution (Vd) of a drug is likely to be significantly higher if the:
Correct Answer: a
45. In elderly patients, how does pulse pressure typically change due to the stiffening of the arteries?
Correct Answer: c
46. The absorption of sodium in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts of the kidney is primarily executed by:
Correct Answer: d
47. A 12-year-old child presents with left knee pain and swelling. What is the most appropriate initial investigation to establish a diagnosis?
Correct Answer: d
48. Which anatomical aspect of the shoulder joint is considered the weakest due to a lack of ligamentous support?
Correct Answer: d
49. Which of the following laboratory markers is considered pathognomonic (highly specific) for Rheumatoid Arthritis?
Correct Answer: a
50. In the context of radiation therapy, which of the following cell types is the most radiosensitive?
Correct Answer: c
51. What is recognized as the earliest neurological sign of Pott's spine (spinal tuberculosis)?
Correct Answer: b
52. Which of the following is the most specific radiological finding associated with hyperparathyroidism?
Correct Answer: c
53. What is typically the first clinical presentation of a simple bone cyst?
Correct Answer: d
54. A 45-year-old male presents with severe low back pain radiating to the right leg. Examination reveals a positive Straight Leg Raise Test (SLRT) before 40 degrees and sensory loss over the first webspace of the right foot. What is the most likely cause?
Correct Answer: b
55. Which anatomical structures contribute to the formation of the rotator cuff interval?
Correct Answer: c
56. Why is a partially inflated tourniquet considered more dangerous than using no tourniquet at all during limb surgery?
Correct Answer: b
57. A 35-year-old male sustains burns to the entire right upper limb, the anterior chest, the anterior abdomen, and the entire circumference of the right thigh. Based on the "Rule of Nines," what is the estimated Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) burned?
Correct Answer: b
58. A 12-year-old child presents with right lower abdominal pain and rebound tenderness. He is hungry but has a history of a runny nose five days ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: a
59. In an asymptomatic patient with no active bleeding, what is the typically recommended hemoglobin threshold for blood transfusion?
Correct Answer: b
60. Which artery is most likely to be injured, leading to a wound hematoma after inguinal hernia surgery?
Correct Answer: d
61. Which of the following is NOT a component of the standard 3-hour sepsis protocol?
Correct Answer: b
62. Which pharmacological method is used specifically to reduce both the size and vascularity of the thyroid gland prior to surgery?
Correct Answer: a
63. A barium swallow reveals a characteristic "bird-beak" appearance in a patient with progressive dysphagia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
64. What is the most suitable initial investigation for a 20-year-old female presenting with a right breast lump?
Correct Answer: c
65. A patient with proximal small bowel obstruction experiences persistent vomiting. Which electrolyte abnormality is most likely to be found?
Correct Answer: b
66. A 35-year-old male IV drug user presents with a painful, pulsatile swelling in the groin. What is the most likely cause?
Correct Answer: c
67. A patient managed for acute pancreatitis returns 6 weeks later with a non-tender abdominal mass but no fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
68. In a patient stabilized after acute pancreatitis, what is the best investigation to perform after 24 hours to assess for complications like necrosis?
Correct Answer: c
69. Which type of facial fracture involves a horizontal line that separates the maxilla from the pterygoid plates?
Correct Answer: a
70. A 6-year-old presents with fever, periorbital swelling, and limited eye movement. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer: a
71. Why are organs destined for transplantation kept at a low temperature of 4°C?
Correct Answer: b
72. Which of the following is the investigation of choice for evaluating varicose veins?
Correct Answer: c
73. A patient with a 5-year history of bloody stools and tenesmus is most likely suffering from:
Correct Answer: a
74. A 60-year-old male with a history of cholecystectomy presents with backache, hypercalcemia, and deranged renal function. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
75. In a patient presenting with acanthosis nigricans (hyperpigmentation of the neck and axilla), which laboratory parameter should be checked first?
Correct Answer: c
76. For a patient with Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT) being managed with warfarin, the INR should ideally be maintained between:
Correct Answer: b
77. Somatostatin analogs are primarily utilized in the treatment of:
Correct Answer: a
78. A 35-year-old male diagnosed with mesenteric venous thrombosis should receive which immediate next step in management?
Correct Answer: c
79. A 19-year-old athlete with a history of syncope suddenly collapses and dies during a basketball game. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
80. What is the correct progressive sequence of ECG changes observed in a patient with worsening hyperkalemia?
Correct Answer: a
81. At what age is a child typically expected to be able to scribble, walk independently, and speak at least one meaningful word?
Correct Answer: b
82. In a typical case of Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), what is the expected size of the heart on imaging?
Correct Answer: d
83. A 12-month-old child missed their 9-month MR vaccine and is now due for the JE vaccine. The child has a mild cough but no fever. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer: b
84. A child exhibits involuntary twitching of the limbs while sleeping, which can be triggered by applying pressure to the spine. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
85. Which of the following is the treatment of choice for Vitamin D-dependent rickets?
Correct Answer: d
86. During the process of erythropoiesis in a teenager, which of the following changes does NOT occur as the cell matures?
Correct Answer: a
87. A 10-year-old child is diagnosed with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT). What is the first-line pharmacological treatment?
Correct Answer: c
88. A 12-year-old boy presents with progressive ascending paralysis and areflexia following a recent diarrheal illness. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer: a
89. An adolescent presents with hyperglycemia, polydipsia, polyuria, low urine osmolality, and high plasma osmolality. What is the most likely condition?
Correct Answer: b
90. In a pediatric patient suffering from hemorrhagic shock, how is the pulse pressure typically affected?
Correct Answer: c
91. Which formula is standard for calculating the Estimated Due Date (EDD) by subtracting 3 months and adding 7 days to the LMP?
Correct Answer: b
92. A 20-week pregnant woman presents with palpitations, anxiety, and a heart rate of 150 bpm due to hyperthyroidism. What is the most appropriate immediate treatment?
Correct Answer: b
93. A 25-year-old woman with amenorrhea for 10 weeks presents with vaginal bleeding and passage of grape-like vesicles. Her serum hCG is significantly elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
94. A woman with 10 weeks of amenorrhea presents with a positive UPT, tenderness in the pouch of Douglas, and cervical motion tenderness. What is the most likely diagnosis? [5]
Correct Answer: a
95. A 30-year-old female presents with a painless, firm lump in the anterolateral vaginal wall that does not change size with increased intra-abdominal pressure. What is the most likely diagnosis? [6]
Correct Answer: d
96. A woman experiences profuse vaginal bleeding immediately following delivery. The placenta was confirmed to be complete, but the uterus is soft and boggy on palpation. What is the most likely cause? [6]
Correct Answer: a
97. During laparoscopy for infertility and dyspareunia, "gunpowder burn-like" structures are observed on the peritoneum. What is the most likely cause? [7]
Correct Answer: b
98. A postmenopausal woman who had a hysterectomy 20 years ago complains of hot flushes. What is the preferred first-line medication for her symptoms? [7]
Correct Answer: a
99. In a normal 28-day menstrual cycle where fertilization does not occur, when does the corpus luteum typically begin to degenerate? [8]
Correct Answer: c
100. Which vaccine has been recently introduced (as of January 2025) into Nepal's national immunization schedule to prevent cervical cancer? [9]
Correct Answer: b
101. A diagnostic test correctly identifies 80 out of 100 diseased individuals. This measure of the test's performance is known as: [9]
Correct Answer: c
102. Which of the following vaccines is considered the most heat-sensitive, especially after reconstitution? [9]
Correct Answer: a
103. What is the most appropriate screening test for an asymptomatic, sexually active 20-year-old female with a normal physical exam? [10]
Correct Answer: b
104. Teaching personal hygiene or handwashing to students in a school setting is an example of which level of prevention? [4, 10]
Correct Answer: b
105. Data categorized as "Slightly Reduced," "Reduced," and "Markedly Reduced" represents which scale of measurement? [10]
Correct Answer: d
106. A patient is bitten by a dog with an unknown rabies vaccination status, resulting in deep bite marks. What is the most appropriate course of action? [11]
Correct Answer: c
107. Which of the following is considered an "individual level" strategy for health promotion? [11]
Correct Answer: a
108. For a worker in a glass factory, what is the most effective method for the primary prevention of silicosis? [11]
Correct Answer: c
109. Which of the following physical characteristics is most significantly associated with anticipated difficulty in mask ventilation?
Correct Answer: c
110. A patient in the ICU requires sedation that allows for normal sleep architecture. Which of the following drugs most closely mimics natural sleep?
Correct Answer: d
111. Which anesthetic agent should be strictly avoided in a patient with a traumatic brain injury and increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
Correct Answer: c
112. In anesthesia, the "second gas effect" refers to the phenomenon where:
Correct Answer: a
113. A patient presents with symptomatic bradycardia (HR 42 bpm) and hypotension (BP 80/50 mmHg) after consuming wild honey. What is the first-line medication to administer?
Correct Answer: a
114. During adult CPR, where should chest compressions be ideally performed according to standard guidelines?
Correct Answer: c
115. A 45-year-old chronic alcoholic is admitted following a road accident. Two days later, he develops tremors, hallucinations, and sweating. What is the immediate drug of choice for management?
Correct Answer: b
116. "Identity crisis" is a psychological concept typically occurring in adolescence, best described as:
Correct Answer: c
117. Which behavioral therapy is considered the most effective for a patient with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) who engages in excessive handwashing?
Correct Answer: d
118. A patient presents with red, scaly, and greasy patches on the nasolabial folds and chest. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
119. What is the most likely diagnosis for a 55-year-old male with a slow-growing, pearly lesion on his nose that has a central ulcer and telangiectasia?
Correct Answer: a
120. A patient with latent syphilis is allergic to penicillin. What is the most appropriate alternative treatment?
Correct Answer: b
121. Which of the following is the most common premalignant lesion associated with the development of oral cancer?
Correct Answer: c
122. Acrodynia, also known as "pink disease," is a clinical condition caused by poisoning from which of the following substances?
Correct Answer: a
123. In the process of rigor mortis, which muscle is typically the first to be involved?
Correct Answer: b
124. Post-mortem lividity with a characteristic "brick-red" color is most commonly observed in poisoning by:
Correct Answer: c
125. In cases of Diffuse Axonal Injury (DAI) following a motor vehicle accident, where are the lesions most commonly located on MRI?
Correct Answer: a
126. Under the START triage system in a mass casualty scenario, how would you categorize an unconscious 2-year-old child?
Correct Answer: d
127. Which medical ethics principle describes the right of a competent individual to make their own informed decisions regarding their medical treatment?
Correct Answer: b
128. In medical practice, a "near miss" event is best described as:
Correct Answer: b
129. When a patient presents with multiple old medical reports, what is the first priority for the healthcare provider?
Correct Answer: a
130. Evaluating and recognizing health problems within a community and planning targeted interventions is known as:
Correct Answer: c
131. A 60-year-old female with a 40 pack-year smoking history presents with a persistent cough and weight loss. A CT scan reveals a hilar mass, and a biopsy confirms the diagnosis. What is the most likely pathological type of lung cancer?
Correct Answer: d
132. In the diagnosis of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA), which of the following laboratory findings is considered the most essential diagnostic criterion?
Correct Answer: c
133. A patient diagnosed with tuberculosis is receiving standard therapy (RHZE). During follow-up, he develops anemia with ringed sideroblasts on bone marrow examination. Which vitamin should be supplemented to correct this?
Correct Answer: b
134. A 40-year-old male smoker presents with painful ulcerations and gangrene of the toes. Examination shows inflammatory changes in the small arteries and veins of the hands and feet. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
135. Flapping tremor (asterixis) is a clinical sign observed in several metabolic conditions. It is typically NOT associated with which of the following?
Correct Answer: c
136. A 55-year-old male presents with shortness of breath, hypotension, and distended neck veins. His ECG shows electrical alternans. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
137. During quiet respiration, which part of the lungs is generally the most well-ventilated?
Correct Answer: b
138. A 47-year-old male presents with sudden-onset, severe chest pain radiating to his back. His blood pressure is 175/100 mmHg. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: d
139. A patient is being treated for pneumonia with clindamycin. A week later, he develops severe watery diarrhea and abdominal cramping. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this complication?
Correct Answer: a
140. Which triple therapy regimen is the standard treatment for Helicobacter pylori infection?
Correct Answer: a
141. A patient with forceful retching and vomiting presents with hematemesis. The mucosal tear is most likely located at the:
Correct Answer: b
142. A pregnant woman in her third trimester presents with painful vaginal bleeding and a rigid, tender uterus. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
143. Which of the following is considered the gold standard for the diagnosis of otitis media with effusion (OME)?
Correct Answer: c
144. To control a severe case of epistaxis that has not responded to nasal packing, which artery should be ligated?
Correct Answer: b
145. In a patient with Mobitz type II heart block who is symptomatic with dizziness, what is the best immediate treatment?
Correct Answer: b
146. Which structure of the eye is responsible for the maximum refraction of light?
Correct Answer: b
147. A 45-year-old male presents with white, foamy, patch-like lesions on the bulbar conjunctiva. He has a history of poor nutrition. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
148. A patient presents with ptosis, miosis, and anhidrosis on the right side of the face. The right pupil is smaller than the left but reacts normally to light. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: b
149. What is recognized as the earliest clinical sign of Graves orbitopathy?
Correct Answer: b
150. A "bat wing" appearance on a chest X-ray is a classic radiological sign typically associated with:
Correct Answer: a
151. Which of the following is considered a common artifact in ultrasound (USG) imaging, often seen behind a gallstone?
Correct Answer: d
152. Which of the following is NOT an early sign of an acute cerebral infarct on a CT scan?
Correct Answer: c
153. A radiological finding of "codfish vertebrae" (biconcave shape of the vertebrae) is characteristic of:
Correct Answer: b
154. The decidua basalis is anatomically associated with which component of the developing placenta?
Correct Answer: c
155. At approximately what stage of development does fetal hemoglobin (HbF) begin its transition to adult hemoglobin (HbA)?
Correct Answer: b
156. In which of the following clinical scenarios is the alveolar-arterial (A-a) oxygen gradient typically increased?
Correct Answer: c
157. During an isotonic exercise session, which of the following cardiovascular parameters remains the most stable (least changed)?
Correct Answer: d
158. Which of the following muscles receives its nerve supply via somatic motor efferent fibers?
Correct Answer: c
159. For a patient with a known penicillin allergy who requires prophylaxis for Rheumatic Heart Disease (RHD), which of the following is the most suitable alternative?
Correct Answer: b
160. An increase in the urinary excretion of ammonium (NH4+) is most significantly observed in which of the following conditions?
Correct Answer: d
161. A 28-year-old male is brought to the ER unresponsive with pinpoint pupils and a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/minute. What is the immediate drug of choice for administration?
Correct Answer: c
162. A 45-year-old patient with HIV/AIDS is on an ART regimen including Ritonavir. Following a diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis, which anti-TB drug should be avoided due to significant interactions with the ART regimen?
Correct Answer: a
163. A patient with a femur fracture suddenly develops acute respiratory distress and a petechial rash 48 hours after the injury. What is the most likely cause?
Correct Answer: c
164. In a medical legal context, if a patient dies following an assault specifically because of a subsequent lack of proper medical intervention, which legal principle is applied?
Correct Answer: b
165. A 25-year-old cyclist falls and skids on the ground, resulting in superficial loss of the epidermis with minimal bleeding. This injury is classified as:
Correct Answer: c
166. A 25-year-old patient presents with a wide QRS complex on ECG after ingesting 30 tablets of Imipramine. What is the next best step in pharmacological management?
Correct Answer: a
167. At what age does the Eustachian tube typically reach its adult size and orientation?
Correct Answer: c
168. Which of the following conditions is likely to result in the maximum possible conductive hearing loss (approximately 40 dB)?
Correct Answer: a
169. What is the most common extracranial complication associated with Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media (CSOM)?
Correct Answer: b
170. Which of the following drugs should be administered to all patients with a corneal ulcer, regardless of the underlying etiology, to relieve pain from ciliary spasms?
Correct Answer: c
171. In a patient suspected of methanol poisoning where the specific antidote (fomepizole) is unavailable, what is the next best step?
Correct Answer: a
172. Which ophthalmic finding is specifically characteristic of hypertensive retinopathy?
Correct Answer: b
173. A physician diagnoses a patient with HIV and discloses the status to the patient's spouse without the patient's consent to protect the spouse. This action aligns with which ethical principle?
Correct Answer: b
174. Which of the following WHO/INRUD prescribing indicators is most commonly used to evaluate the rationality of drug use in primary healthcare?
Correct Answer: c
175. While working in the ICU, you are required to break bad news to a family. You give your phone to a colleague to ensure you are not interrupted. This behavior most closely exemplifies:
Correct Answer: d
176. Which method is used specifically to measure the thickness of the cornea?
Correct Answer: c
177. During CPR, what is the correct ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths for an adult when there are two rescuers present?
Correct Answer: b
178. What type of sampling method involves dividing the population into distinct subgroups (e.g., based on religion or age) and then selecting participants from each subgroup?
Correct Answer: b
179. In statistics, which measure is used to describe the strength and direction of a linear relationship between two variables?
Correct Answer: b
180. Which level of immunity is achieved when an individual naturally contracts a disease and recovers, leading to long-term memory?
Correct Answer: c
181. In the context of a mass casualty incident using the START triage system, what color code is assigned to an unconscious child requiring immediate intervention?
Correct Answer: a
182. Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for executive functions, including reasoning, planning, and problem-solving?
Correct Answer: d
183. A 30-year-old male involved in a road traffic accident suffers a complete transection of the brainstem above the level of the pons. Which function is most likely to be lost?
Correct Answer: b
184. A 5-year-old male presents with difficulty rising from the floor, using his hands to "walk" up his own legs. This clinical sign (Gower's sign) is most characteristic of:
Correct Answer: b
185. A young girl presents with episodes of fainting and abnormal movements that never occur during sleep and lack bowel or bladder incontinence. No injuries are present. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: c
186. What is the earliest clinical sign observed following the consumption of cannabis?
Correct Answer: d
187. A patient presents with a swelling over the cheek, and a biopsy confirms a pleomorphic adenoma of the parotid gland that has pushed the tonsil medially. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer: b
188. Which of the following is a classic histopathological characteristic of a glottic malignant tumor?
Correct Answer: b
189. In a patient diagnosed with adhesive capsulitis, imaging reveals changes in a specific triangular space. Which anatomical structures form the rotator cuff interval?
Correct Answer: a
190. What is the estimated sound attenuation (in dB) provided by loosely placing a cotton ball in the ear?
Correct Answer: a
191. What is the standard magnification factor of a direct ophthalmoscope?
Correct Answer: c
192. Primary open-angle glaucoma is typically diagnosed by examining which of the following during a clinical assessment?
Correct Answer: a
193. A patient who suffered a facial burn two years ago now presents with an everted lower eyelid. What is the most likely pathological cause?
Correct Answer: b
194. Which of the following findings is considered a hallmark of central vertigo rather than peripheral vertigo?
Correct Answer: b
195. Why is MRI strictly contraindicated in a patient suspected of having a metallic foreign body in the eye?
Correct Answer: b
196. Which imaging modality is recognized as the gold standard for diagnosing a suspected ureteric stone?
Correct Answer: a
197. A 45-year-old female presents with symptoms of hypothyroidism and laboratory results showing high TSH and low T4. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
Correct Answer: b
198. In a patient with aspiration pneumonia who was in a supine position at the time of aspiration, which lung segment is most likely to be affected?
Correct Answer: b
199. What is the primary clinical reason for administering antenatal corticosteroids to a woman in premature labor?
Correct Answer: c
200. For a nulliparous woman with a history of heart disease seeking a long-term, non-hormonal contraceptive option, which of the following is the most suitable?
Correct Answer: a