Gandaki Loksewa Medical Officer 2082/2083

Gandaki Loksewa Medical Officer

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1. The most important mode of treatment for post-infective myocarditis is:
  • a. Antibiotics
  • b. Anti-inflammatory drugs
  • c. Bed rest
  • d. Beta blockers
Correct Answer: c
2. Chronic hepatitis can be caused by all of the following except:
  • a. Hepatitis A virus
  • b. Hepatitis B virus
  • c. Autoimmune hepatitis
  • d. Hepatitis C virus
Correct Answer: a
3. All of the following conditions cause palpable kidneys, EXCEPT:
  • a. Hydronephrosis
  • b. Polycystic kidney disease
  • c. Hypernephroma
  • d. Chronic glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: d
4. The auscultatory gap while recording blood pressure is best avoided by:
  • a. Palpating the radial pulse first
  • b. Auscultating carefully over the elbow
  • c. Percussing over the chest
  • d. Repeating the procedure after a 5-minute gap
Correct Answer: a
5. Which neurotransmitter is depleted in Parkinsonism?
  • a. Norepinephrine
  • b. Serotonin
  • c. Acetylcholine
  • d. Dopamine
Correct Answer: d
6. Which of the following is NOT a preventive measure against Dengue fever?
  • a. Eliminating stagnant water
  • b. Using mosquito repellent
  • c. Vaccination
  • d. Taking antibiotics
Correct Answer: d
7. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is:
  • a. Iodine deficiency
  • b. Drugs
  • c. Autoimmune thyroiditis
  • d. Subacute viral thyroiditis
Correct Answer: c
8. A 78-year-old man presents with a one-month history of shortness of breath, chest wall pain, and weight loss. He has a 60 pack-year smoking history. Examination reveals a stony dull percussion note at the left base with absent breath sounds. Chest X-ray shows a large left pleural effusion and numerous bilateral pleural plaques. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?
  • a. Bronchoscopy
  • b. Ultrasound-guided pleural fluid aspiration
  • c. CT pulmonary angiography
  • d. Sputum for microscopy and culture
Correct Answer: b
9. A 77-year-old diabetic woman presents with fatigue and breathlessness. ECG confirms atrial fibrillation with good heart rate control. Echocardiogram shows left atrial enlargement but no other abnormality. What is the most appropriate strategy to reduce her risk of a future stroke?
  • a. Oral anticoagulation with Warfarin or a direct oral anticoagulant
  • b. Oral Aspirin, 75 mg once daily
  • c. Oral Digoxin
  • d. Immediate DC cardioversion
Correct Answer: a
10. A 55-year-old female with chronic constipation fails to respond to fiber supplements and laxatives. Anorectal manometry suggests dyssynergic defecation. What is the next appropriate management step?
  • a. Reassurance
  • b. Linaclotide
  • c. Biofeedback
  • d. Prucalopride
Correct Answer: c
11. Which of the following is NOT considered professional misconduct according to the Nepal Medical Council Act?
  • a. Selling sample drugs
  • b. Adulteration
  • c. Private practice
  • d. Attending conferences sponsored by pharmaceutical companies
Correct Answer: d
12. What is the first step you should take when a patient enters your outpatient department (OPD)?
  • a. Greet and introduce yourself
  • b. Lock the door immediately
  • c. Ask for presenting complaints immediately
  • d. Proceed to examination
Correct Answer: a
13. Which is the most dangerous pathway during electrocution?
  • a. Left hand to left leg
  • b. Right hand to left hand
  • c. Left hand to right hand
  • d. Right hand to right leg
Correct Answer: b
14. The main cause of death in road traffic accidents is:
  • a. Head injury
  • b. Abdominal injury
  • c. Pelvic fracture
  • d. Pulmonary contusion
Correct Answer: a
15. Rigor mortis is first seen in which organ?
  • a. Lower limbs
  • b. Right iliac fossa
  • c. Heart muscle
  • d. Inferior surface of the liver
Correct Answer: c
16. Which phase of organophosphate poisoning is associated with significant morbidity?
  • a. Acute cholinergic crisis
  • b. Intermediate syndrome
  • c. Delayed neuropathy
  • d. Subclinical intoxication
Correct Answer: b
17. Which of the following is NOT an example of Gender-Based Violence (GBV)?
  • a. Online violence
  • b. Domestic violence
  • c. Forced marriage
  • d. Vasectomy/Male sterilization
Correct Answer: d
18. According to the Mother's Milk Substitute Act, which of the following is strictly prohibited?
  • a. The sale of products in pharmacies
  • b. Advertising these products to the general public
  • c. Use in hospitals when medically necessary
  • d. Sale of products in remote rural areas
Correct Answer: b
19. Intersex conditions include all of the following except:
  • a. Gonadal agenesis
  • b. Hermaphroditism
  • c. Concealed sex
  • d. Turner syndrome
Correct Answer: c
20. Which of the following wounds simulates a red-hot poker?
  • a. Glancing wound
  • b. Wound by a rifled weapon
  • c. Burning a blunt stick
  • d. Wound by red-colored metal
Correct Answer: d
21. Which of the following is NOT a sign of atropinization?
  • a. Dilated and reactive pupil
  • b. Rise of surface temperature
  • c. Dry mouth
  • d. Tachycardia
Correct Answer: b
22. All are modalities of treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning except:
  • a. Hyperbaric oxygen
  • b. Artificial ventilation
  • c. Physostigmine
  • d. Blood transfusion
Correct Answer: d
23. The drug of choice for postural hypotension is:
  • a. Clonidine
  • b. Propranolol
  • c. Fludrocortisone
  • d. Phenylephrine
Correct Answer: c
24. Which of the following regular medicines is most likely to require a dose reduction in a patient with stage 3 chronic kidney disease?
  • a. Digoxin 125 micrograms daily
  • b. Hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg daily
  • c. Fluoxetine 20 mg daily
  • d. Verapamil 120 mg daily
Correct Answer: a
25. Which aspect of a new drug is typically not considered by drug regulators but is considered by health-care providers (e.g., a hospital drug and therapeutics committee)?
  • a. Safety profile
  • b. Manufacturing standards
  • c. Patient information
  • d. Cost-effectiveness
Correct Answer: d
26. In which study design does the population sample receive both treatments (at different times)?
  • a. Double blind study
  • b. Concurrent study
  • c. Case control study
  • d. Cross-over study
Correct Answer: d
27. What is the recommended minimum number of antenatal care visits according to the 2016 WHO model?
  • a. 2
  • b. 4
  • c. 8
  • d. 12
Correct Answer: c
28. According to the national immunization schedule of Nepal, which vaccines should be given to a child at 9 months of age?
  • a. Hepatitis B, Haemophilus influenzae, Pneumococcal
  • b. Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus
  • c. Measles, Rubella, Pneumococcal
  • d. Measles, Rubella
Correct Answer: d
29. The decrease in the incidence of a disease to a level where it ceases to be a public health problem is called:
  • a. Control
  • b. Elimination
  • c. Eradication
  • d. Surveillance
Correct Answer: b
30. Farmer's lung results from exposure to:
  • a. Sugarcane dust
  • b. Cotton fiber dust
  • c. Grain dust
  • d. Tobacco
Correct Answer: c
31. The index for current nutritional status or severity of malnutrition is:
  • a. Weight for age
  • b. Height for age
  • c. Weight for height
  • d. Skin fold thickness
Correct Answer: c
32. The main objective of the safe motherhood program is:
  • a. To provide free medical care to women
  • b. To reduce maternal and neonatal mortality and morbidity
  • c. To promote family planning services
  • d. To prevent communicable diseases in women
Correct Answer: c
36. For a neonate with moderate dehydration, the ideal fluid of choice for resuscitation is:
  • a. 0.9% NS at a rate of 125-150 ml/kg/day
  • b. 1/2 0.9% NS at a rate of 100 ml/kg/day
  • c. 1/2 0.9% NS at a rate of 125 ml/kg/day
  • d. 10% DNS at a rate of 100 ml/kg/day
Correct Answer: a
37. The most common congenital heart defect detected during birth is:
  • a. Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
  • b. Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)
  • c. Patent Foramen Ovale
  • d. Patent Ductus Arteriosus
Correct Answer: a
38. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of Fragile X syndrome?
  • a. Large testis
  • b. Large nose
  • c. Large ear
  • d. Large face
Correct Answer: b
39. After a recent earthquake, the nutritional status of children in the community can be best assessed by:
  • a. Body Mass Index (BMI)
  • b. Weight for height
  • c. Weight for age
  • d. Height for age
Correct Answer: b
40. What is the most likely cause of unilateral nasal discharge in children?
  • a. Ethmoidal polyp
  • b. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
  • c. Inverted papilloma
  • d. Foreign body
Correct Answer: d
41. Which of the following is highly suggestive of Battered Baby Syndrome?
  • a. Overnutrition and obesity
  • b. Firearm injuries
  • c. Bruises in different stages of healing
  • d. Partial skull fracture
Correct Answer: c
42. In a normal child, the upper segment to lower segment ratio at 10 years of age is:
  • a. 1.7
  • b. 1.3
  • c. 1.1
  • d. 1.0
Correct Answer: d
43. The most common cause of stridor in infants and children is:
  • a. Congenital subglottic stenosis
  • b. Laryngomalacia
  • c. Vocal cord paralysis
  • d. Foreign body in the airway
Correct Answer: b
44. An infant presents with hepatomegaly, hypoglycemia, hyperlipidemia, and acidosis. The most probable diagnosis is:
  • a. Von Gierke's disease
  • b. Conn's disease
  • c. Pompe's disease
  • d. McArdle disease
Correct Answer: a
45. The incubation period of measles is:
  • a. 10 to 14 days
  • b. 5 to 7 days
  • c. 14 to 21 days
  • d. 1 to 5 days
Correct Answer: a
46. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is classically associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
  • a. Carbamazepine
  • b. Cotrimoxazole
  • c. Corticosteroids
  • d. Thioacetazone
Correct Answer: c
47. The following drugs can be used in a patient with Psoriasis EXCEPT:
  • a. Retinoids
  • b. Methotrexate
  • c. Steroids
  • d. Dapsone
Correct Answer: c
48. All statements regarding tuberous sclerosis are true, EXCEPT:
  • a. The hallmark of the disease is hamartomas in many systems
  • b. Autosomal recessive inheritance
  • c. Classic triad of learning disability, epilepsy, and skin lesions
  • d. Shagreen patches
Correct Answer: b
49. A 28-year-old gentleman presents with a single, painless genital ulcer and non-tender lymphadenopathy. The most likely diagnosis is:
  • a. Chancroid
  • b. Syphilis (Primary stage)
  • c. Lymphogranuloma venereum
  • d. Herpes genitalis
Correct Answer: b
50. The first-line Antiretroviral Therapy (ART) regimen recommended in Nepal for adults living with HIV is:
  • a. Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Efavirenz
  • b. Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Nevirapine
  • c. Tenofovir + Lamivudine + Dolutegravir
  • d. Tenofovir + Emtricitabine + Lopinavir
Correct Answer: c
51. Which method of labor induction should not be performed in a patient with a previous lower segment cesarean section (LSCS)?
  • a. Stripping of the membrane
  • b. Oxytocin
  • c. Misoprostol
  • d. Foley's catheter
Correct Answer: c
52. What is the principal source of lubrication during sexual intercourse?
  • a. Cervical glands
  • b. Vaginal walls
  • c. Skene glands
  • d. Bartholin glands
Correct Answer: b
53. The average weight of the uterus at term is:
  • a. 500 grams
  • b. 800 grams
  • c. 1100 grams
  • d. 1500 grams
Correct Answer: c
54. Which of the following increases during pregnancy?
  • a. Platelet concentration
  • b. Platelet size
  • c. Clotting time
  • d. Plasma fibrinogen level
Correct Answer: d
55. What is the shortest diameter of the pelvic cavity?
  • a. Diagonal conjugate
  • b. True conjugate
  • c. Interspinous
  • d. Obstetrical conjugate
Correct Answer: c
56. The half-life of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is:
  • a. 30 minutes
  • b. 6 hours
  • c. 24 hours
  • d. 36 hours
Correct Answer: c
57. Which of the following antihypertensive medications is contraindicated in pregnancy?
  • a. Methyldopa
  • b. Hydralazine
  • c. Labetalol
  • d. Enalapril
Correct Answer: d
58. Which of the following puerperal infections is associated with scanty, odorless lochia?
  • a. Chlamydia trachomatis
  • b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  • c. Group AB-Hemolytic streptococci
  • d. Enterococcus species
Correct Answer: a
59. The deep and superficial perineal pouches are divided by the:
  • a. Ischiopubic rami
  • b. Urogenital diaphragm
  • c. Pelvic fascia
  • d. Perineal membrane
Correct Answer: d
60. A Gartner duct cyst is a remnant of the:
  • a. Paramesonephric duct
  • b. Mesonephric duct
  • c. Metanephric duct
  • d. Parametanephric duct
Correct Answer: b
61. Which of the following is a common cause of osteomyelitis in intravenous drug users?
  • a. Staphylococcus aureus
  • b. Salmonella
  • c. Pseudomonas
  • d. Streptococcus agalactiae
Correct Answer: c
62. A patient complains of pain in his leg after an accident. Compartment syndrome is diagnosed. Which of the following is most suggestive of this condition?
  • a. Pain out of proportion to findings
  • b. Absent distal pulse
  • c. Pallor
  • d. Paraesthesia
Correct Answer: a
63. What is the most common complication of Central Venous Catheterization?
  • a. Carotid artery injury
  • b. Arrythmia
  • c. Infection
  • d. Hematoma at the insertion site
Correct Answer: c
64. A man with burns presents to the hospital. Which of the following is used for rapid sequence intubation?
  • a. Rocuronium
  • b. Succinylcholine
  • c. Vecuronium
  • d. Atracuronium
Correct Answer: a
65. Which of the following micronutrients is accumulated in excess in Wilson's disease?
  • a. Zinc
  • b. Iron
  • c. Copper
  • d. Magnesium
Correct Answer: c
66. The presence of an endotracheal tube in the trachea is best confirmed by:
  • a. Presence of CO2 in expired air
  • b. Absence of gurgling sound in the epigastrium
  • c. Auscultation of the chest
  • d. Pulse oximetry
Correct Answer: a
67. Which of the following is a 'red flag' symptom in a person presenting with a headache?
  • a. Associated with taking codeine tablets
  • b. Visual aura
  • c. Improved by lying down
  • d. Right arm weakness
Correct Answer: d
68. The investigation of choice for the diagnosis of a biliary stone is:
  • a. X-ray abdomen
  • b. Transabdominal ultrasound
  • c. Endoscopic ultrasound
  • d. CT scan of abdomen
Correct Answer: b
69. The most common type of hip dislocation is:
  • a. Anterior
  • b. Posterior
  • c. Lateral
  • d. Central
Correct Answer: b
70. A 10-year-old child presents after a fall onto an outstretched hand. Radiographs confirm a displaced supracondylar fracture of the humerus. You note a cool, pale hand with an absent radial pulse. What is the immediate and most critical action in a Primary Health Care (PHC) setting?
  • a. Apply a backslab and refer to a tertiary care center immediately
  • b. Attempt closed reduction and percutaneous pinning under image intensifier
  • c. Give pain medication and observe for 24 hours
  • d. Apply gentle traction and splint the elbow in extension to restore circulation
Correct Answer: d
71. Which of the following organisms is associated with a higher risk of complications in Ophthalmia neonatorum?
  • a. Chlamydia trachomatis
  • b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
  • c. Herpes simplex
  • d. Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: b
72. In soft contact lens users, which organism is most commonly associated with an increased risk of infection?
  • a. Acanthamoeba
  • b. Pseudomonas
  • c. Staphylococcus
  • d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Correct Answer: a
73. A patient presents with parotitis and has been on broad-spectrum antibiotics for two weeks, but the condition has not improved. What is the most probable cause?
  • a. Tubercular parotitis
  • b. Sjogren's syndrome
  • c. Fungal parotitis
  • d. Allergic parotitis
Correct Answer: c
74. The semicircular canal is responsible for which of the following movements?
  • a. Angulatory
  • b. Vertical
  • c. Horizontal
  • d. Linear
Correct Answer: a
75. The principal component of dental plaque is:
  • a. Dextrans
  • b. Micro-organisms
  • c. Polysaccharides
  • d. Lactic acid
Correct Answer: b
76. Which one of the following is a premalignant condition?
  • a. Metaplasia
  • b. Hyperplasia
  • c. Anaplasia
  • d. Erythroplakia
Correct Answer: d
77. Which salivary gland tumor is more common among children?
  • a. Pleomorphic adenoma
  • b. Adenocarcinoma
  • c. Mucoepidermoid tumor
  • d. Acinic cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: c
78. The drug which is indicated irrespective of the etiology of a corneal ulcer is:
  • a. Corticosteroid
  • b. Antibiotics
  • c. Atropine
  • d. Antifungal
Correct Answer: c
79. A chalazion is a chronic inflammatory condition of the:
  • a. Meibomian gland
  • b. Zeis' gland
  • c. Sweat gland
  • d. Salivary gland
Correct Answer: a
80. A 35-year-old male presents with a non-healing oral ulcer present for two months. He is a regular user of tobacco and betel quid. What is the most appropriate initial action?
  • a. Prescribe antibiotics and topical antiseptic mouthwash
  • b. Advise cessation of tobacco/betel use and follow up in one month
  • c. Perform an incisional biopsy immediately or refer for definitive diagnosis
  • d. Reassure the patient that it is likely an aphthous ulcer
Correct Answer: c
81. The most common site for a Hydatid cyst to occur is the:
  • a. Liver
  • b. Lung
  • c. Kidney
  • d. Brain
Correct Answer: a
82. Which of the following is used for disability assessment during the primary survey of a trauma patient?
  • a. GCS
  • b. AVPU
  • c. Motor strength
  • d. Sensory strength
Correct Answer: b
83. The most effective method to measure hydration status after resuscitation of a surgical patient is:
  • a. Urine output
  • b. Blood pressure
  • c. Heart rate
  • d. Capillary refill time
Correct Answer: a
84. Which age group is most commonly affected by anal fissures?
  • a. Infants and young children
  • b. Adolescents
  • c. Adults over 60 years
  • d. All age groups equally
Correct Answer: a
85. A source of increased serum amylase level could be the:
  • a. Lung
  • b. Muscle
  • c. Red blood cells
  • d. Parotid gland
Correct Answer: d
86. Scar constriction is facilitated by:
  • a. Myofibroblasts
  • b. Neutrophils
  • c. Granuloma formation
  • d. Macrophages
Correct Answer: a
87. The timing of repair for a primary hard palate cleft is:
  • a. 4-5 months
  • b. 15-18 months
  • c. 5-6 months
  • d. 12 months
Correct Answer: b
88. Froment's sign tests the:
  • a. Adductor pollicis
  • b. Flexor pollicis longus
  • c. Opponens pollicis
  • d. Abductor pollicis
Correct Answer: a
89. Which of the following can lead to functional intestinal obstruction (ileus)?
  • a. Hernia
  • b. Tumor
  • c. Intestinal adhesions
  • d. Electrolyte imbalance
Correct Answer: d
90. The primary function of the prostate gland is:
  • a. Produces sperm
  • b. Controls urination
  • c. Produces testosterone
  • d. Produces a fluid that nourishes and transports sperm
Correct Answer: d
91. The most specific feature of psychosis is:
  • a. Incoherence
  • b. Neologism
  • c. Perseverance
  • d. Pressure of speech
Correct Answer: b
92. Which clinical feature is seen due to a lesion on the bilateral amygdala?
  • a. Loss of taste sensation of food
  • b. Hyperphagia and tendency to eat indiscriminately
  • c. Unable to experience emotion
  • d. Decrease in need for food
Correct Answer: b
93. An 85-year-old man with a fractured neck of femur is unable to understand he has a fracture or even that he is in the hospital. What term is used to describe his inability to give informed consent?
  • a. Incapacity
  • b. Cognitive impairment
  • c. Delirium
  • d. Dementia
Correct Answer: a
94. When assessing cognitive function, it is good practice to perform which of the following in all patients?
  • a. A brief assessment of orientation
  • b. A brief assessment of orientation and attention
  • c. MMSE (Mini-Mental State Examination)
  • d. MoCA (Montreal Cognitive Assessment)
Correct Answer: b
95. Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
  • a. Auditory hallucination
  • b. Delusion of persecution
  • c. Emotional blunting
  • d. Thought insertion
Correct Answer: c
96. Which of the following is a cause of hypercapnia?
  • a. Hypoventilation
  • b. Respiratory alkalosis
  • c. Respiratory acidosis
  • d. Both Hypoventilation and Respiratory Acidosis
Correct Answer: d
97. A 30-year-old male sustained injury to his right chest following an RTA. His BP is 100/70, pulse is 110, and JVP is 7 cm above the sternal angle. There is diminished movement with absent breath sounds on the right. What is the most important initial management?
  • a. Diuretics
  • b. Chest tube placement
  • c. Inotropes
  • d. Antibiotics
Correct Answer: b
98. You are part of a rescue team looking for a trapped trekker. Below what core temperature can ventricular fibrillation be induced from excessive movement?
  • a. 36°C
  • b. 32°C
  • c. 30°C
  • d. 33°C
Correct Answer: c
99. What is the gold standard diagnostic test for hemodynamically stable patients with blunt abdominal trauma?
  • a. X-Ray
  • b. Ultrasound
  • c. CT
  • d. MRI
Correct Answer: c
100. Before inserting a nasogastric tube, the patient should be positioned:
  • a. Supine
  • b. Trendelenburg position
  • c. Sitting upright with head tilted forward
  • d. Prone
Correct Answer: c
Do recheck answers as few are AI generated

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