Koshi Loksewa Medical Officer 2082/2083

Koshi Loksewa Medical Officer

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1. First-rank symptoms of schizophrenia were described by:
  • a. Bleuler
  • b. Kraepelin
  • c. Schneider
  • d. Freud
Correct Answer: c
2. Wernicke's encephalopathy is attributed to:
  • a. Excessive GGT levels
  • b. Severe thiamine deficiency
  • c. Excessive blood alcohol content
  • d. Severe riboflavin deficiency
Correct Answer: b
3. A woman complains of intrusive thoughts about abusing God and slapping a gentleman. These thoughts persist despite her desire to stop. She is likely suffering from:
  • a. Convulsion disorder
  • b. Somatization
  • c. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
  • d. Hypochondriasis
Correct Answer: c
4. A patient with multi-bacillary leprosy developed multiple painful erythematous lesions and thickening of the nerves after a month of antileprotic therapy. Which reaction has occurred?
  • a. Fixed drug eruption
  • b. Type II reaction
  • c. Type I reaction
  • d. Erythema nodosum
Correct Answer: b
5. The WHO regimen for borderline tuberculoid leprosy is:
  • a. Rifampicin + clofazimine daily
  • b. Rifampicin + dapsone daily
  • c. Rifampicin monthly + dapsone daily
  • d. Rifampicin + dapsone + clofazimine daily
Correct Answer: c
6. Which form of leishmaniasis specifically affects the skin, causing non-painful, enlarging ulcers?
  • a. Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar)
  • b. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis
  • c. Cutaneous leishmaniasis
  • d. All forms of leishmaniasis affect the skin
Correct Answer: c
7. Athlete's foot is associated with:
  • a. Tinea pedis
  • b. Postural psoriasis
  • c. Pemphigus
  • d. Pompholyx
Correct Answer: a
8. Which of the following routes of drug administration minimizes the first-pass effect through the liver?
  • a. Oral
  • b. Intraduodenal
  • c. Rectal
  • d. Transdermal
Correct Answer: d
9. Severe hepatotoxicity with delayed onset (6-24 hours) following the ingestion of wild mushrooms is most likely due to:
  • a. Psilocybin
  • b. Muscarine
  • c. Amatoxins
  • d. Ibotenic acid
Correct Answer: c
10. Which of the following antihypertensives is considered safe for use during pregnancy?
  • a. ACE inhibitors
  • b. Methyldopa
  • c. Losartan
  • d. Warfarin
Correct Answer: b
11. The primary goal of pharmacovigilance is:
  • a. To ensure drug affordability
  • b. To detect, assess, understand, and prevent adverse effects of drugs
  • c. To promote drug sales
  • d. To improve access to new drugs
Correct Answer: b
12. Strangulation is most common with which type of hernia?
  • a. Inguinal
  • b. Femoral
  • c. Epigastric
  • d. Obturator
Correct Answer: b
13. The most common complication of Meckel's diverticulum is:
  • a. Bleeding
  • b. Diverticulitis
  • c. Obstruction
  • d. Intussusception
Correct Answer: a
14. In emphysematous pyelonephritis, the classic triad of symptoms includes:
  • a. Fever, loin mass, and hematuria
  • b. Fever, vomiting, and hematuria
  • c. Flank pain, loin mass, and hematuria
  • d. Fever, vomiting, and flank pain
Correct Answer: c
15. A 22-year-old man is brought to the emergency room after a house fire. He has burns around his mouth and his voice is hoarse, but breathing is unlabored. The most appropriate next step is:
  • a. Immediate endotracheal intubation
  • b. Examination of the oral cavity and pharynx with a fiberoptic laryngoscope
  • c. Placement on supplemental oxygen
  • d. Immediate IV fluid resuscitation
Correct Answer: b
16. Which of the following is most important in the initial management of a head injury?
  • a. Immediate CT scan before ABCs
  • b. Airway, breathing, circulation, and neurological assessment
  • c. Prophylactic antibiotics
  • d. Early craniotomy in all cases
Correct Answer: b
17. The preferred surgical treatment for symptomatic varicose veins is:
  • a. Compression stockings
  • b. High ligation and stripping
  • c. Sclerotherapy
  • d. Observation
Correct Answer: b
18. Which of the following signs is seen in acute cholecystitis?
  • a. Kehr's sign
  • b. Balance sign
  • c. Rovsing sign
  • d. Murphy's sign
Correct Answer: d
19. A 25-year-old female presents with a mobile, well-circumscribed lump in the lower outer quadrant of her left breast. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • a. Abscess
  • b. Fibroadenoma
  • c. Ductal carcinoma
  • d. Paget's disease
Correct Answer: b
20. What is the best method for preventing hypotension during spinal anesthesia?
  • a. Dopamine
  • b. Mephentermine
  • c. Preloading with crystalloids
  • d. Trendelenburg's position
Correct Answer: c
21. Which of the following is a fixed performance (high flow) oxygen delivery system?
  • a. Nasal cannula
  • b. Rebreathing mask
  • c. Simple mask
  • d. Venturi mask
Correct Answer: d
22. Which of the following is a less common but serious complication of anesthesia?
  • a. Malignant hyperthermia
  • b. Dental injury
  • c. Headache
  • d. Shivering
Correct Answer: a
23. Spinal anesthesia should be injected into the space between:
  • a. L3-L4
  • b. L1-L2
  • c. T12-L1
  • d. Below L5
Correct Answer: a
24. A ranula is a retention cyst involving the:
  • a. Sublingual gland
  • b. Submandibular gland
  • c. Parotid gland
  • d. Vocal cord
Correct Answer: a
25. The treatment for the squamous type of Chronic Otitis Media (COM) is:
  • a. Tympanoplasty
  • b. Topical antibiotics
  • c. Modified radical mastoidectomy
  • d. Cortical mastoidectomy
Correct Answer: c
26. What is the main dietary factor contributing to dental caries?
  • a. Excessive water intake
  • b. Lack of vitamins
  • c. Frequent consumption of sugars
  • d. Smoking
Correct Answer: c
27. Which of the following conditions is characterized by episodic vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss?
  • a. Otosclerosis
  • b. Presbycusis
  • c. Meniere's disease
  • d. Swimmer's ear
Correct Answer: c
28. Which orthopedic condition is characterized by inflammation of the shoulder tendons, causing pain and limited range of motion?
  • a. Carpal tunnel syndrome
  • b. Tennis elbow
  • c. Rotator cuff tendinitis
  • d. Plantar fasciitis
Correct Answer: c
29. Which of the following is the most common metabolic bone disease affecting the spine, characterized by low bone density and increased fracture risk?
  • a. Osteomalacia
  • b. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
  • c. Osteoporosis
  • d. Paget's disease
Correct Answer: c
30. What is the primary goal of treatment for a comminuted fracture?
  • a. Immobilization with a simple cast
  • b. Surgical intervention to realign and stabilize the fragments
  • c. Observation for a few weeks
  • d. Applying heat to promote healing
Correct Answer: b
31. The most common complication of Colles' fracture is:
  • a. Vascular injury
  • b. Nonunion
  • c. Malunion
  • d. Sudeck's osteodystrophy
Correct Answer: c
32. A fracture that communicates with the external environment is called a:
  • a. Closed fracture
  • b. Simple fracture
  • c. Compound fracture
  • d. Stress fracture
Correct Answer: c
33. What kind of gait might develop in a person with severe osteomalacia?
  • a. Steppage gait
  • b. Shuffling gait
  • c. Waddling gait
  • d. Scissors gait
Correct Answer: c
34. What is the fundus finding in hypertensive retinopathy?
  • a. Optic disc cupping, cherry red spot
  • b. Cotton wool spots, cherry red spot
  • c. Cherry red spot, cotton wool spots
  • d. Arteriovenous nicking, flame-shaped hemorrhages
Correct Answer: d
35. The first clinical sign of vitamin A deficiency is:
  • a. Night blindness
  • b. Conjunctival xerosis
  • c. Bitot's spot
  • d. Keratomalacia
Correct Answer: a
36. Which of the following statements is true about diabetic retinopathy?
  • a. It causes typical pain in its early stages.
  • b. It is more common in Type 2 diabetics at the time of initial diagnosis.
  • c. Early detection and timely treatment can prevent up to 90% of severe vision loss cases.
  • d. It is characterized by damage to the large blood vessels in the retina.
Correct Answer: c
37. A 72-year-old man complains of gradual vision loss with a cloudy papillary reflex. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • a. Cataract
  • b. Glaucoma
  • c. Retinal detachment
  • d. Hypertensive retinopathy
Correct Answer: a
38. What is the normal weight gain in a singleton pregnancy?
  • a. 11-16 kg
  • b. 5-8 kg
  • c. 20-25 kg
  • d. 8-10 kg
Correct Answer: a
39. According to the Abortion Act, up to how many weeks of pregnancy can a woman obtain an abortion on her own request?
  • a. Up to 8 weeks
  • b. Up to 18 weeks
  • c. Up to 12 weeks
  • d. Up to 24 weeks
Correct Answer: c
40. A 27-year-old lady presents with two months of amenorrhea, severe lower abdominal pain, and vaginal bleeding. What is the most likely cause?
  • a. Ectopic pregnancy
  • b. Threatened abortion
  • c. Antepartum hemorrhage
  • d. Missed abortion
Correct Answer: a
41. A lady with G3P2 and a known history of hypertension presents at 28 weeks of gestation with convulsions. What is the likely diagnosis?
  • a. Eclampsia
  • b. Pre-eclampsia
  • c. Superimposed eclampsia
  • d. Chronic hypertension
Correct Answer: a
42. Which of the following is the most common protozoan infection of the genital tract?
  • a. Chlamydia
  • b. Syphilis
  • c. Gonorrhea
  • d. Trichomoniasis
Correct Answer: d
43. Crowning is best defined as:
  • a. When the greatest diameter of the fetal head comes through the vulva
  • b. When the presenting part reaches the pelvic floor
  • c. When the vulva stretches maximally without receding the presenting part even after cessation of uterine contraction
  • d. When the fetal head is visible at the vulva
Correct Answer: c
44. The first step in the management of eclampsia is:
  • a. Termination of pregnancy
  • b. Rehydration with IV fluids
  • c. MgSO4 injection
  • d. Transfusion of blood
Correct Answer: c
45. A primigravida at 9 weeks of gestation presents with bleeding and the passage of grape-like masses per vaginum. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • a. Complete abortion
  • b. Hydatidiform mole
  • c. Incomplete abortion
  • d. Ectopic pregnancy
Correct Answer: b
46. The first step in essential newborn care is:
  • a. Immediate bathing
  • b. Drying and thermal protection
  • c. Vitamin K injection
  • d. Eye prophylaxis
Correct Answer: b
47. What is the most common complication of chickenpox in children?
  • a. Encephalitis
  • b. Otitis media
  • c. Pneumonia
  • d. Secondary bacterial infection
Correct Answer: d
48. Marasmus is a form of protein-energy malnutrition primarily characterized by:
  • a. A severe deficiency in protein only
  • b. A lack of protein leading to edema and ascites
  • c. A severe deficiency in total calories, including protein, carbohydrates, and fats
  • d. An excess of fat deposition
Correct Answer: c
49. Which of the following is NOT an X-linked disorder?
  • a. Ocular albinism
  • b. Hemophilia A
  • c. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
  • d. Testicular feminization
Correct Answer: c
50. A child stands with support and speaks a few disyllables at:
  • a. 6 months
  • b. 9 months
  • c. 12 months
  • d. 18 months
Correct Answer: c
51. A 24-hour-old neonate presents with a fluctuant swelling in the parietal region that does not cross suture lines. The likely diagnosis is:
  • a. Scalp abscess
  • b. Sebaceous cyst
  • c. Cephalhematoma
  • d. Caput succedaneum
Correct Answer: c
52. What is the management for persistent diarrhea?
  • a. Zinc only
  • b. ORS only
  • c. Rehydration + low-osmolarity diet
  • d. Immediate referral only
Correct Answer: c
53. Which mechanism in phototherapy helps to reduce serum bilirubin?
  • a. Photo oxidation
  • b. Structural isomerization
  • c. Photoisomerization
  • d. Conjugation
Correct Answer: b
54. In a village of 1000 people, 25 suffer from cholera, and 5 died. What is the case fatality rate?
  • a. 20
  • b. 10
  • c. 5
  • d. 25
Correct Answer: a
55. The HIV epidemic in Nepal is concentrated mainly in:
  • a. General population
  • b. 15-49 age group
  • c. Key populations
  • d. Children under 5 years
Correct Answer: c
56. Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are developed to be achieved by:
  • a. 2015-2025 AD
  • b. 2015-2030 AD
  • c. 2015-2035 AD
  • d. 2020-2035 AD
Correct Answer: b
57. Which organization is responsible for coordinating international efforts to combat global health issues and pandemics?
  • a. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
  • b. World Health Organization (WHO)
  • c. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
  • d. United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund (UNICEF)
Correct Answer: b
58. A medical officer posted at a district level hospital in the current federal setup is administratively accountable mainly to:
  • a. MoHP directly
  • b. WHO office
  • c. Provincial health authorities
  • d. Local government
Correct Answer: c
59. SDG 3 includes a target to achieve universal health coverage. What does this mean?
  • a. Everyone has access to healthcare services and financial protection
  • b. Everyone has health insurance, regardless of their income
  • c. Everyone receives all possible medical treatments for free
  • d. Everyone can access healthcare services, but not necessarily for free
Correct Answer: b
60. Dengue fever is primarily transmitted by:
  • a. Aedes mosquito
  • b. Culex mosquito
  • c. Anopheles mosquito
  • d. Sandfly
Correct Answer: a
61. The first step in investigating an outbreak or epidemic is to:
  • a. Collect laboratory samples
  • b. Confirm the existence of an epidemic
  • c. Notify media
  • d. Start mass treatment
Correct Answer: b
62. A study that compares people with a disease to those without the disease and looks back in time for exposure is:
  • a. Case-control study
  • b. Cohort study
  • c. Cross-sectional study
  • d. Randomized controlled trial
Correct Answer: a
63. Keeping the frequency of illness within acceptable limits is best described as:
  • a. Eradication
  • b. Elimination
  • c. Surveillance
  • d. Control
Correct Answer: d
64. In a decomposed body where soft tissues are lost, the most useful structure for identification is:
  • a. Hair style
  • b. Skin color
  • c. Teeth and skull
  • d. Nails
Correct Answer: c
65. Dribbling of saliva is seen in a case of:
  • a. Strangulation
  • b. Hanging
  • c. Drowning
  • d. Suffocation
Correct Answer: b
66. The definite postmortem finding of death due to drowning is:
  • a. Cutis anserina
  • b. Demonstration of diatoms in the organs of the body
  • c. Presence of water in the middle ear
  • d. Edematous lung
Correct Answer: b
67. If a body is found with rigor mortis present only in the face, neck, and chest, approximately how long has the person been dead?
  • a. Less than 2 hours
  • b. 2 to 6 hours
  • c. 12 hours
  • d. More than 24 hours
Correct Answer: b
68. Maggots appear in the natural orifices of a dead body in about:
  • a. 2-4 hours
  • b. 6-8 hours
  • c. 8-12 hours
  • d. 12-24 hours
Correct Answer: d
69. What term is used to describe the examination of a deceased individual to determine the cause and manner of death?
  • a. Autopsy
  • b. Biopsy
  • c. Pathology
  • d. Radiography
Correct Answer: a
70. A person rescued from a river is dead. He has frothing from the mouth and diatoms in the blood are positive. What is your diagnosis?
  • a. Hanging
  • b. Post-mortem drowning
  • c. Ante-mortem drowning
  • d. Strangulation
Correct Answer: c
71. The hydrostatic test is performed in cases of:
  • a. Infanticide
  • b. Drowning
  • c. Throttling
  • d. Hanging
Correct Answer: a
72. What is the main objective of the Nepal Medical Council Act?
  • a. To promote hospital construction
  • b. To regulate the medical profession and ensure quality medical education and practice
  • c. To run private hospitals
  • d. To distribute medicines
Correct Answer: b
73. The main objective of the National Health Insurance Program in Nepal is to:
  • a. Provide financial protection and improve access to essential health services
  • b. Improve access to essential health services for rural areas
  • c. Improve access to essential health services for the urban poor
  • d. Replace all government health programs
Correct Answer: a
74. The primary objective of the National Health Policy 2076 is:
  • a. To focus solely on national-level health services
  • b. To create opportunities for all citizens to access their constitutional right to health
  • c. To decentralize all health responsibilities to local levels without federal oversight
  • d. To prioritize only urban health infrastructure development
Correct Answer: b
75. The One-Stop Crisis Management Centre (OCMC) primarily provides services to:
  • a. Survivors of Gender-Based Violence (GBV) only
  • b. Survivors of Gender-Based Violence (GBV) and other forms of violence
  • c. Survivors of Gender-Based Violence (GBV) and infectious disease cases
  • d. Survivors of Gender-Based Violence (GBV) of hospital staff
Correct Answer: b
76. According to the Good Governance Act 2066 (Koshi Province), which of the following is a fundamental principle of good governance?
  • a. Confidentiality
  • b. Simplification
  • c. Decentralization
  • d. Transparency
Correct Answer: c
77. What is the future vision (Sosh) of the Koshi Province health policy?
  • a. Health for all
  • b. Healthy life, happy life
  • c. Healthy human, healthy province
  • d. Healthy human capital, prosperous province
Correct Answer: d
78. What is the main objective of the health policy of the Nepal government?
  • a. To coordinate public and private health services
  • b. To provide basic health services to all citizens
  • c. To operate health services under federal control
  • d. To produce necessary manpower for the health sector
Correct Answer: b
79. According to the Right to Information Act 2064, who is the chairperson of the committee formed to recommend the appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners?
  • a. Speaker of the House of Representatives
  • b. Minister of Communication and Information Technology
  • c. Secretary of Communication and Information Technology
  • d. President of the Nepal Journalists Federation
Correct Answer: a
80. According to the Koshi Province Civil Service Act 2079, who determines the number of employees for the 9th level of the authorized level?
  • a. Province Government
  • b. Chief Secretary of the Province Government
  • c. Secretary of the concerned Ministry
  • d. Federal Ministry of General Administration
Correct Answer: b
81. On which subject does the Right to Health in the Constitution of Nepal focus?
  • a. Ensuring the fundamental freedom and rights of every person
  • b. Ensuring the state's economic policies
  • c. Ensuring civic duties
  • d. Ensuring comprehensive public services
Correct Answer: a
82. In which article of the Constitution of Nepal is the Right to Health mentioned?
  • a. 30
  • b. 33
  • c. 35
  • d. 38
Correct Answer: c
83. According to the Local Government Operation Act 2074, who has the authority to determine the borders of rural municipalities and municipalities?
  • a. Local level
  • b. Province Government
  • c. Federal Parliament
  • d. Nepal Government
Correct Answer: c
84. Whose responsibility is it to ensure the performance of public entities?
  • a. Head of the public entity
  • b. Head of the administration division
  • c. Head of the accounting department
  • d. Head of the procurement unit
Correct Answer: d
85. Which of the following is NOT included in the Provincial Civil Service under the Provincial Civil Service Act?
  • a. Provincial Health Service
  • b. Provincial Engineering Service
  • c. Provincial Legal Service
  • d. Provincial Education Service
Correct Answer: a
86. A 7-year-old child presents with fever and a maculopapular rash starting on the face and spreading downward, accompanied by cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis. Koplik spots are seen on the buccal mucosa. The most likely diagnosis is:
  • a. Measles
  • b. Chickenpox
  • c. Rubella
  • d. Mumps
Correct Answer: a
87. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
  • a. Renal calculi, irrespective of their size, do not affect kidney functions.
  • b. Glomeruli mean tiny blood vessels of the kidney.
  • c. Malignant tumors occur in the kidney and bladder.
  • d. Hematuria is an effect of glomerulonephritis.
Correct Answer: a
88. What is the main characteristic of insulin resistance in type 2 diabetes?
  • a. The body produces no insulin.
  • b. The cells are unable to respond properly to insulin.
  • c. The pancreas is completely destroyed.
  • d. Blood sugar levels are always low.
Correct Answer: b
89. A 45-year-old obese man presents with polyuria and polydipsia. Fasting plasma glucose is 146 mg/dL on two occasions. According to standard criteria, the diagnosis is:
  • a. Normal glucose tolerance
  • b. Impaired fasting glucose
  • c. Diabetes mellitus
  • d. Hypoglycemia
Correct Answer: c
90. Which of the following is considered the classic triad of meningitis symptoms in adults?
  • a. Fever, rash, and cough
  • b. Dizziness, nausea, and muscle pain
  • c. Blurred vision, headache, and fatigue
  • d. Neck stiffness, sudden high fever, and headache
Correct Answer: d
91. What is a major risk associated with agranulocytosis?
  • a. Increased risk of bleeding disorders
  • b. Development of high blood pressure
  • c. Overgrowth of benign tumors
  • d. Increased susceptibility to life-threatening infections
Correct Answer: d
92. A 45-year-old man presents with epigastric pain related to meals, melena, and positive occult blood in the stool. The single most useful initial diagnostic test to evaluate the cause is:
  • a. Abdominal ultrasound
  • b. Upper GI endoscopy
  • c. Plain X-ray abdomen
  • d. CT scan abdomen
Correct Answer: b
93. Cardiogenic shock is a life-threatening emergency resulting from the heart's inability to:
  • a. Maintain a high blood pressure
  • b. Pump enough fluid to the lungs
  • c. Pump enough blood and oxygen to the brain and other vital organs
  • d. Regulate the body's temperature
Correct Answer: c
94. A 25-year-old man with a history of atopy presents with episodic wheezing, chest tightness, and cough, worse at night and early morning. Spirometry shows FEV1/FVC less than 70% with significant reversibility after a bronchodilator. The most likely diagnosis is:
  • a. Chronic bronchitis
  • b. Bronchiectasis
  • c. Asthma
  • d. COPD
Correct Answer: c
95. A pansystolic murmur developing in a patient recovering from acute myocardial infarction is most commonly due to:
  • a. Re-infarction
  • b. Left ventricular failure
  • c. Right ventricular failure
  • d. Rupture of ventricular septum
Correct Answer: d
96. The dose of atropine administered through the endotracheal tube is:
  • a. The same as the IV dose
  • b. Half the strength of the IV dose
  • c. 2-3 times the IV dose
  • d. 5 times the IV dose
Correct Answer: c
97. A 45-year-old man presents with sudden chest pain radiating to the left arm and sweating. What is the first investigation you should perform?
  • a. Echocardiography
  • b. Chest X-ray
  • c. ECG
  • d. Cardiac enzymes
Correct Answer: c
98. What is the recommended initial energy dose for defibrillation of ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia in adults during ALS?
  • a. 50 joules
  • b. 100 joules
  • c. 200 joules
  • d. 360 joules
Correct Answer: d
99. A patient presents with acute shortness of breath, chest pain, and hemoptysis. The most likely diagnosis is:
  • a. Pneumonia
  • b. Pulmonary embolism
  • c. Pneumothorax
  • d. Myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: b
100. What is the hallmark feature of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
  • a. Hallucinations
  • b. Delusions
  • c. Intrusive thoughts and repetitive behaviors
  • d. Extreme mood swings
Correct Answer: c
Do recheck answers as few are AI generated

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