MEC Common Entrance Exam (MD/MS) NAMS 2018
Click on the Options to reveal answers NAMS 2018 Past Year Questions1. The notochord develops from which of the following?
- a. Primitive node
- b. Neural tube
- c. Neural crest
- d. Prechordal plate
Correct Answer: a
2. In the embryonic state, a four-chambered heart is seen at:
- a. 8 weeks
- b. 10 weeks
- c. 12 weeks
- d. 14 weeks
Correct Answer: a
3. In winging of the scapula, the nerve roots involved are:
- a. C5, 6, 7
- b. C6, 7
- c. C8, T1
- d. C3, 4
Correct Answer: a
4. Neural tube defects are a complication of:
- a. Protein deficiency
- b. Folic acid deficiency
- c. Vitamin B1 deficiency
- d. Trauma during pregnancy
Correct Answer: b
5. The third pharyngeal arch is supplied by the:
- a. Trigeminal nerve
- b. Facial nerve
- c. Glossopharyngeal nerve
- d. Vagus nerve
Correct Answer: c
6. Which of the following does not pass through the flexor retinaculum?
- a. Ulnar nerve
- b. Median nerve
- c. Flexor digitorum profundus
- d. Flexor carpi radialis
Correct Answer: a
7. The skeleton is developed from:
- a. Ectoderm
- b. Mesoderm
- c. Endoderm
- d. All of the above
Correct Answer: b
8. Scarpa's fascia is continuous with:
- a. Colles' fascia
- b. Dartos muscle
- c. Suspensory ligament of penis/clitoris
- d. Fundiform ligament of penis/clitoris
Correct Answer: a
9. Kidney maturation occurs by the age of:
- a. 1 month
- b. 1 year
- c. 6 months
- d. 2 years
Correct Answer: d
10. The critical vascular zone of the spinal cord is at:
- a. T4-T9
- b. T5-T10
- c. L1-L5
- d. C1-C5
Correct Answer: a
11. The law stating that a joint and its surrounding muscles are supplied by the same nerve is:
- a. Hilton's law
- b. Millar's law
- c. Washington's law
- d. Langman's law
Correct Answer: a
12. Megaloblastic anemia is caused by deficiency of:
- a. Vitamin B1
- b. Vitamin B2
- c. Vitamin B3
- d. Vitamin B12
Correct Answer: d
13. Which of the following is true of extracellular space in comparison to intracellular space?
- a. High serum osmolarity
- b. Low chloride content
- c. Low protein content
- d. High oncotic pressure
Correct Answer: c
14. Which of the following is not secreted by the duodenum?
- a. Motilin
- b. Somatostatin
- c. Peptide YY
- d. Gastrin
Correct Answer: d
15. Alveolar ventilation is best measured by:
- a. CO2 tension (PaCO2)
- b. Alveolar gradient
- c. O2 tension
- d. Minute respiratory volume
Correct Answer: a
16. Maximum tension in the ventricles occurs during:
- a. Isometric relaxation
- b. Rapid filling
- c. Isometric contraction
- d. Period of ejection
Correct Answer: c
17. Features of lower motor neuron lesion include:
- a. Hypotonia
- b. Hypertonia
- c. Decreased reflexes
- d. Both a and c
Correct Answer: d
18. Excessive bleeding leads to:
- a. Increase in pulse pressure
- b. Decrease in pulse pressure
- c. Increase in blood pressure
- d. Decrease in pulse rate
Correct Answer: b
19. HbA1C testing is done using:
- a. Plasma
- b. Serum
- c. EDTA blood
- d. Heparinized blood
Correct Answer: c
20. Adenine-Thymine (A-T) base pairing is found in:
- a. DNA
- b. RNA
- c. Both DNA and RNA
- d. Neither DNA nor RNA
Correct Answer: a
21. In an elderly man, which drug may cause hip fracture?
- a. Benzodiazepine
- b. Opioid
- c. ACE inhibitors
- d. Beta blocker
Correct Answer: a
22. Imatinib is a:
- a. Protease kinase inhibitor
- b. Tyrosine kinase inhibitor
- c. Calcineurin inhibitor
- d. T lymphocyte inhibitor
Correct Answer: b
23. Grapefruit juice is contraindicated with which of the following drugs?
- a. Atorvastatin
- b. Pindolol
- c. Carvedilol
- d. Aspirin
Correct Answer: a
24. Neural tube defects in pregnancy are caused by:
- a. Phenytoin
- b. Valproate
- c. Venlafaxine
- d. Hydrocodone
Correct Answer: b
25. Phenylephrine causes:
- a. Vasoconstriction
- b. Vasodilation
- c. Mixed effect
- d. Bronchoconstriction
Correct Answer: a
26. Hyperkalemia is caused by:
- a. Benzothiazide
- b. Furosemide
- c. Amiloride
- d. Acetazolamide
Correct Answer: c
27. The role of aspirin in coronary artery disease is to:
- a. Inhibit the coagulation cascade
- b. Inhibit platelet aggregation
- c. Provide fibrinolytic action
- d. Provide antihemorrhagic action
Correct Answer: b
28. Alpha-methyldopa is contraindicated in:
- a. Hypertension
- b. Psychosis
- c. Diabetes mellitus
- d. Hyperemesis gravidarum
Correct Answer: b
29. Inflammation and enzymatic degradation of cells is known as:
- a. Apoptosis
- b. Necrosis
- c. Autophagy
- d. Calcification
Correct Answer: b
30. Which of the following is a tumor suppressor gene?
- a. APC (Adenomatous Polyposis Coli)
- b. PDGF-B
- c. EGF receptors
- d. C-MYC
Correct Answer: a
31. Which statement about phyllodes tumor is true?
- a. They can occur only between 10 to 20 years of age
- b. The majority of tumors behave in a benign fashion
- c. They are also called fibroadenomas
- d. Axillary lymph node dissection is indicated in all cases
Correct Answer: b
32. Sarcoma spreads primarily via which route?
- a. Hematogenous
- b. Lymphatic
- c. Along body cavities and natural passages
- d. Direct extension
Correct Answer: a
33. Which of the following is not a tumor marker?
- a. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
- b. Prostatic acid phosphatase
- c. APC (Adenomatous Polyposis Coli)
- d. Calcitonin
Correct Answer: c
34. Ulcers in Crohn's disease are:
- a. Mucosal
- b. Submucosal
- c. Transmural
- d. Cutaneous
Correct Answer: c
35. Stone formation due to Proteus infection produces:
- a. Calcium oxalate stones
- b. Uric acid stones
- c. Triple phosphate (struvite) stones
- d. Cystine stones
Correct Answer: c
36. Cytokines released after trauma are due to:
- a. Neuronal response
- b. Hormonal response
- c. Neuro-hormonal response
- d. Inflammatory response
Correct Answer: d
37. Linitis plastica is classified as which Borrmann type?
- a. Borrmann I
- b. Borrmann II
- c. Borrmann III
- d. Borrmann IV
Correct Answer: d
38. The HIV core contains which of the following?
- a. gp120 and gp41
- b. p17 and p24
- c. HIV RNA polymerase and protease
- d. HIV DNA polymerase and protease
Correct Answer: b
39. Which of the following is a DNA virus?
- a. Hepatitis A
- b. Hepatitis B
- c. Hepatitis C
- d. Hepatitis D
Correct Answer: b
40. Paltauf hemorrhage is characteristic of:
- a. Hanging
- b. Drowning
- c. Strangulation
- d. Nitrite poisoning
Correct Answer: b
41. Putrefaction is:
- a. Autolysis
- b. Necrosis
- c. Apoptosis
- d. Gangrene
Correct Answer: a
42. In a patient with Hepatitis C and HIV, which extrahepatic manifestation is not associated?
- a. Cryoglobulinemia
- b. Membranous glomerulopathy
- c. Cerebral infarction
- d. Porphyria cutanea tarda
Correct Answer: c
43. A 25-year-old lady presents with proteinuria, collapsing glomerulopathy, and podocyte proliferation. She is most likely suffering from:
- a. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
- b. Sickle cell anemia
- c. Diabetes
- d. HIV
Correct Answer: d
44. Alveolar ventilation is determined by:
- a. CO2 tension (PaCO2)
- b. Alveolar gradient
- c. O2 tension
- d. Minute respiratory volume
Correct Answer: a
45. Torsades de pointes occurs due to:
- a. Hypothermia
- b. Hypercalcemia
- c. Hypermagnesemia
- d. Hypomagnesemia
Correct Answer: d
46. Which of the following is not a feature of adult-onset Still's disease?
- a. Intermittent fever
- b. Splenomegaly
- c. Decreased serum ferritin
- d. Rash and arthralgia
Correct Answer: c
47. Which of the following is not a cause of massive splenomegaly?
- a. Portal hypertension
- b. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
- c. Kala-azar (Visceral leishmaniasis)
- d. Myelofibrosis
Correct Answer: a
48. Which of the following is a feature of ventricular tachycardia (VT) but not supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)?
- a. Narrow QRS complex
- b. Broad QRS complex
- c. Responds to carotid sinus massage
- d. Normal axis deviation
Correct Answer: b
49. Which of the following is not a cause of upper GI bleeding?
- a. Arteriovenous malformation
- b. Mallory-Weiss tear
- c. NSAIDs
- d. Ulcerative colitis
Correct Answer: d
50. Which statement about Bell's palsy is true?
- a. Spontaneous recovery occurs in 90% of cases
- b. It only occurs in females
- a. Primitive node
- b. Neural tube
- c. Neural crest
- d. Prechordal plate
- a. 8 weeks
- b. 10 weeks
- c. 12 weeks
- d. 14 weeks
- a. C5, 6, 7
- b. C6, 7
- c. C8, T1
- d. C3, 4
- a. Protein deficiency
- b. Folic acid deficiency
- c. Vitamin B1 deficiency
- d. Trauma during pregnancy
- a. Trigeminal nerve
- b. Facial nerve
- c. Glossopharyngeal nerve
- d. Vagus nerve
- a. Ulnar nerve
- b. Median nerve
- c. Flexor digitorum profundus
- d. Flexor carpi radialis
- a. Ectoderm
- b. Mesoderm
- c. Endoderm
- d. All of the above
- a. Colles' fascia
- b. Dartos muscle
- c. Suspensory ligament of penis/clitoris
- d. Fundiform ligament of penis/clitoris
- a. 1 month
- b. 1 year
- c. 6 months
- d. 2 years
- a. T4-T9
- b. T5-T10
- c. L1-L5
- d. C1-C5
- a. Hilton's law
- b. Millar's law
- c. Washington's law
- d. Langman's law
- a. Vitamin B1
- b. Vitamin B2
- c. Vitamin B3
- d. Vitamin B12
- a. High serum osmolarity
- b. Low chloride content
- c. Low protein content
- d. High oncotic pressure
- a. Motilin
- b. Somatostatin
- c. Peptide YY
- d. Gastrin
- a. CO2 tension (PaCO2)
- b. Alveolar gradient
- c. O2 tension
- d. Minute respiratory volume
- a. Isometric relaxation
- b. Rapid filling
- c. Isometric contraction
- d. Period of ejection
- a. Hypotonia
- b. Hypertonia
- c. Decreased reflexes
- d. Both a and c
- a. Increase in pulse pressure
- b. Decrease in pulse pressure
- c. Increase in blood pressure
- d. Decrease in pulse rate
- a. Plasma
- b. Serum
- c. EDTA blood
- d. Heparinized blood
- a. DNA
- b. RNA
- c. Both DNA and RNA
- d. Neither DNA nor RNA
- a. Benzodiazepine
- b. Opioid
- c. ACE inhibitors
- d. Beta blocker
- a. Protease kinase inhibitor
- b. Tyrosine kinase inhibitor
- c. Calcineurin inhibitor
- d. T lymphocyte inhibitor
- a. Atorvastatin
- b. Pindolol
- c. Carvedilol
- d. Aspirin
- a. Phenytoin
- b. Valproate
- c. Venlafaxine
- d. Hydrocodone
- a. Vasoconstriction
- b. Vasodilation
- c. Mixed effect
- d. Bronchoconstriction
- a. Benzothiazide
- b. Furosemide
- c. Amiloride
- d. Acetazolamide
- a. Inhibit the coagulation cascade
- b. Inhibit platelet aggregation
- c. Provide fibrinolytic action
- d. Provide antihemorrhagic action
- a. Hypertension
- b. Psychosis
- c. Diabetes mellitus
- d. Hyperemesis gravidarum
- a. Apoptosis
- b. Necrosis
- c. Autophagy
- d. Calcification
- a. APC (Adenomatous Polyposis Coli)
- b. PDGF-B
- c. EGF receptors
- d. C-MYC
- a. They can occur only between 10 to 20 years of age
- b. The majority of tumors behave in a benign fashion
- c. They are also called fibroadenomas
- d. Axillary lymph node dissection is indicated in all cases
- a. Hematogenous
- b. Lymphatic
- c. Along body cavities and natural passages
- d. Direct extension
- a. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
- b. Prostatic acid phosphatase
- c. APC (Adenomatous Polyposis Coli)
- d. Calcitonin
- a. Mucosal
- b. Submucosal
- c. Transmural
- d. Cutaneous
- a. Calcium oxalate stones
- b. Uric acid stones
- c. Triple phosphate (struvite) stones
- d. Cystine stones
- a. Neuronal response
- b. Hormonal response
- c. Neuro-hormonal response
- d. Inflammatory response
- a. Borrmann I
- b. Borrmann II
- c. Borrmann III
- d. Borrmann IV
- a. gp120 and gp41
- b. p17 and p24
- c. HIV RNA polymerase and protease
- d. HIV DNA polymerase and protease
- a. Hepatitis A
- b. Hepatitis B
- c. Hepatitis C
- d. Hepatitis D
- a. Hanging
- b. Drowning
- c. Strangulation
- d. Nitrite poisoning
- a. Autolysis
- b. Necrosis
- c. Apoptosis
- d. Gangrene
- a. Cryoglobulinemia
- b. Membranous glomerulopathy
- c. Cerebral infarction
- d. Porphyria cutanea tarda
- a. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
- b. Sickle cell anemia
- c. Diabetes
- d. HIV
- a. CO2 tension (PaCO2)
- b. Alveolar gradient
- c. O2 tension
- d. Minute respiratory volume
- a. Hypothermia
- b. Hypercalcemia
- c. Hypermagnesemia
- d. Hypomagnesemia
- a. Intermittent fever
- b. Splenomegaly
- c. Decreased serum ferritin
- d. Rash and arthralgia
- a. Portal hypertension
- b. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
- c. Kala-azar (Visceral leishmaniasis)
- d. Myelofibrosis
- a. Narrow QRS complex
- b. Broad QRS complex
- c. Responds to carotid sinus massage
- d. Normal axis deviation
- a. Arteriovenous malformation
- b. Mallory-Weiss tear
- c. NSAIDs
- d. Ulcerative colitis
- a. Spontaneous recovery occurs in 90% of cases
- b. It only occurs in females
- c. It is a lower motor neuron lesion of the 8th cranial nerve
- d. Antiviral drugs are effective
- a. Dieulafoy's lesion
- b. Mallory-Weiss tear
- c. Angiodysplasia
- d. Lymphoma
- a. Penetrating wound of the heart
- b. Bronchus and major vessel injuries
- c. Esophageal injuries
- d. Pneumonectomy
- a. Highly selective vagotomy
- b. Billroth II operation
- c. Truncal vagotomy and antrectomy
- d. Gastrojejunostomy
- a. Metabolic acidosis
- b. Coagulopathy
- c. Hypothermia
- d. Dehydration
- a. Three times the length of the incision
- b. Four times the length of the incision
- c. Five times the length of the incision
- d. Six times the length of the incision
- a. Thoracodorsal nerve
- b. Accessory nerve
- c. Long thoracic nerve
- d. Axillary nerve
- a. Increased pulse pressure
- b. Decreased pulse pressure
- c. Decreased pulse rate
- d. Increased blood pressure
- a. Metabolic alkalosis
- b. Metabolic acidosis
- c. Respiratory alkalosis
- d. Respiratory acidosis
- a. Celiac ganglion
- b. Cervical ganglion
- c. Paravertebral ganglion
- d. Sacral ganglion
- a. Iatrogenic cause
- b. Silent manifestations
- c. Presentation with acute chest pain
- d. Conservative treatment
- a. FESS (Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery)
- b. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
- c. Arthroscopy
- d. PCNL (Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy)
- a. Mesenteric ischemia
- b. Hepatic vein thrombosis
- c. Acute pancreatitis
- d. Necrotizing enterocolitis
- a. Barium swallow
- b. Barium enema
- c. Barium follow-through
- d. All are equally toxic
- a. Immediate exploratory laparotomy
- b. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage
- c. Laparoscopy
- d. Further imaging with ultrasound
- a. Superficial inferior epigastric vein
- b. Long saphenous vein
- c. Short saphenous vein
- d. Knee perforators
- a. Abdominal pain, acute constipation, distension, and vomiting
- b. Vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal distension
- c. Constipation, abdominal pain, and reflux
- d. Diarrhea, epigastric pain, and nausea
- a. Neuroblastoma
- b. Wilms tumor
- c. Retinoblastoma
- d. Wilson disease
- a. Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)
- b. Rhinovirus
- c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- d. Pseudomonas
- a. Liver function test (LFT)
- b. Renal function test (RFT)
- c. Thyroid function test (TFT)
- d. None of the above
- a. Craniotabes
- b. Wide open fontanelle
- c. Rachitic rosary
- d. Bow legs
- a. Ventricular septal defect (VSD)
- b. Atrial septal defect (ASD)
- c. Transposition of the great arteries (TGA)
- d. Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)
- a. Spastic
- b. Choreoathetoid
- c. Hypotonic
- d. Ataxic
- a. Less common
- b. More common
- c. Equally common
- d. Not related
- a. Type I pneumocytes
- b. Type II pneumocytes
- c. Clara cells
- d. All of the above
- a. 100-200 ml/kg
- b. 400-600 ml/kg
- c. 60-100 ml/kg
- d. 800-1000 ml/kg
- a. 8 weeks
- b. 10 weeks
- c. 14 weeks
- d. 18 weeks
- a. Thickening and thinning of uterine muscle
- b. Progressive contraction of the uterus
- c. Relaxation of uterine muscles
- d. Expulsion of the fetus
- a. Days 6-7
- b. Days 10-14
- c. Days 21-24
- d. During menstruation
- a. 24-28 weeks
- b. 22-24 weeks
- c. 34-36 weeks
- d. 12-16 weeks
- a. Aspirin
- b. Amoxicillin
- c. Paracetamol (PCM)
- d. Enalapril
- a. Fetal jeopardy
- b. Recurrent pre-eclampsia
- c. HELLP syndrome
- d. Postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)
- a. Increased oxygen delivery to the fetus
- b. Increased metabolic acidosis
- c. Increased oxygen to the mother
- d. Increased respiratory acidosis
- a. Respiratory failure
- b. Renal failure
- c. Cardiac failure
- d. Hepatic failure
- a. The capsule is kept intact
- b. The inferior thyroid artery is ligated away from the gland
- c. The inferior thyroid artery is ligated near the gland
- d. Hypercalcemia is a complication
- a. Over the cheek
- b. Vertex and temple
- c. Behind the eyeball
- d. Below the eyebrows
- a. Superficial peroneal nerve
- b. Sciatic nerve
- c. Femoral nerve
- d. Tibial nerve
- a. Paraplegia
- b. Back pain
- c. Narrowing of intervertebral space
- d. Inability to stand
- a. Distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints
- b. Proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints
- c. Lumbar spine
- d. Sacroiliac joints
- a. Extension failure
- b. Flexion failure
- c. Cubitus varus
- d. Cubitus valgus
- a. David
- b. Wolff
- c. Utah
- d. Frost
- a. Serratus anterior
- b. Rhomboid
- c. Latissimus dorsi
- d. Teres major
- a. Auspitz sign
- b. Koebner's phenomenon
- c. Darier sign
- d. Nikolsky sign
- a. Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
- b. Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)
- c. Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)
- d. Herpes Zoster
- a. Salicylic acid and tacrolimus
- b. Salicylic acid and methanol
- c. Methane and ethanol
- d. Charcoal and salicylic acid
- a. Vasculitis
- b. Hypopigmentation
- c. Immune activation
- d. Blood disorders
- a. Agent
- b. Host
- c. Environment
- d. Dehydration
- a. Medical treatment with DEC (Diethylcarbamazine)
- b. Medical treatment with surgery
- c. Diet and activity modification
- d. Prophylactic DEC
- a. The observed number of new cancer cases per 100,000 people per year
- b. Number of new cancer cases per 1,000 people per year
- c. Number of new cases per 10,000 people per year
- d. Number of all cancer cases per 1,000 people per year
- a. Hookworm and leprosy
- b. Leprosy and typhoid
- c. Leprosy and filariasis
- d. Hookworm and dysentery
- a. Perfectionist (Obsessive-compulsive personality traits)
- b. Depression
- c. Mood swings
- d. Paranoid disorder
NAMS 2018 Past Year Questions
1. The notochord develops from which of the following?
Correct Answer: a
2. In the embryonic state, a four-chambered heart is seen at:
Correct Answer: a
3. In winging of the scapula, the nerve roots involved are:
Correct Answer: a
4. Neural tube defects are a complication of:
Correct Answer: b
5. The third pharyngeal arch is supplied by the:
Correct Answer: c
6. Which of the following does not pass through the flexor retinaculum?
Correct Answer: a
7. The skeleton is developed from:
Correct Answer: b
8. Scarpa's fascia is continuous with:
Correct Answer: a
9. Kidney maturation occurs by the age of:
Correct Answer: d
10. The critical vascular zone of the spinal cord is at:
Correct Answer: a
11. The law stating that a joint and its surrounding muscles are supplied by the same nerve is:
Correct Answer: a
12. Megaloblastic anemia is caused by deficiency of:
Correct Answer: d
13. Which of the following is true of extracellular space in comparison to intracellular space?
Correct Answer: c
14. Which of the following is not secreted by the duodenum?
Correct Answer: d
15. Alveolar ventilation is best measured by:
Correct Answer: a
16. Maximum tension in the ventricles occurs during:
Correct Answer: c
17. Features of lower motor neuron lesion include:
Correct Answer: d
18. Excessive bleeding leads to:
Correct Answer: b
19. HbA1C testing is done using:
Correct Answer: c
20. Adenine-Thymine (A-T) base pairing is found in:
Correct Answer: a
21. In an elderly man, which drug may cause hip fracture?
Correct Answer: a
22. Imatinib is a:
Correct Answer: b
23. Grapefruit juice is contraindicated with which of the following drugs?
Correct Answer: a
24. Neural tube defects in pregnancy are caused by:
Correct Answer: b
25. Phenylephrine causes:
Correct Answer: a
26. Hyperkalemia is caused by:
Correct Answer: c
27. The role of aspirin in coronary artery disease is to:
Correct Answer: b
28. Alpha-methyldopa is contraindicated in:
Correct Answer: b
29. Inflammation and enzymatic degradation of cells is known as:
Correct Answer: b
30. Which of the following is a tumor suppressor gene?
Correct Answer: a
31. Which statement about phyllodes tumor is true?
Correct Answer: b
32. Sarcoma spreads primarily via which route?
Correct Answer: a
33. Which of the following is not a tumor marker?
Correct Answer: c
34. Ulcers in Crohn's disease are:
Correct Answer: c
35. Stone formation due to Proteus infection produces:
Correct Answer: c
36. Cytokines released after trauma are due to:
Correct Answer: d
37. Linitis plastica is classified as which Borrmann type?
Correct Answer: d
38. The HIV core contains which of the following?
Correct Answer: b
39. Which of the following is a DNA virus?
Correct Answer: b
40. Paltauf hemorrhage is characteristic of:
Correct Answer: b
41. Putrefaction is:
Correct Answer: a
42. In a patient with Hepatitis C and HIV, which extrahepatic manifestation is not associated?
Correct Answer: c
43. A 25-year-old lady presents with proteinuria, collapsing glomerulopathy, and podocyte proliferation. She is most likely suffering from:
Correct Answer: d
44. Alveolar ventilation is determined by:
Correct Answer: a
45. Torsades de pointes occurs due to:
Correct Answer: d
46. Which of the following is not a feature of adult-onset Still's disease?
Correct Answer: c
47. Which of the following is not a cause of massive splenomegaly?
Correct Answer: a
48. Which of the following is a feature of ventricular tachycardia (VT) but not supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)?
Correct Answer: b
49. Which of the following is not a cause of upper GI bleeding?
Correct Answer: d
50. Which statement about Bell's palsy is true?
Correct Answer: a
51. Congenital arteriovenous malformation in the stomach presenting with hematemesis is:
Correct Answer: c
52. Anterolateral thoracotomy is indicated in:
Correct Answer: a
53. The most common surgery for refractory duodenal ulcer is:
Correct Answer: c
54. The lethal triad of surgery does not include:
Correct Answer: d
55. The length of suture material used to cover an abdominal wall wound should be:
Correct Answer: b
56. A woman cannot comb her hair after breast reconstruction surgery. The nerve likely to be involved is:
Correct Answer: a
57. What happens in acute severe hemorrhage?
Correct Answer: b
58. Paradoxical aciduria occurs in:
Correct Answer: a
59. The ganglion blocked in pancreatic surgery for pain relief is:
Correct Answer: a
60. Boerhaave syndrome is characterized by:
Correct Answer: c
61. All of the following are examples of minimally invasive surgery except:
Correct Answer: d
62. Abdominal angina is caused by:
Correct Answer: a
63. The most toxic barium study is:
Correct Answer: b
64. A patient with blunt abdominal trauma in shock is brought to the hospital ER. The next best step in management is:
Correct Answer: a
65. Which of the following veins should not be cut during varicose vein surgery?
Correct Answer: a
66. Features of acute intestinal obstruction include:
Correct Answer: a
67. In a child with abdominal mass and extraocular swelling, the most likely diagnosis is:
Correct Answer: a
68. Bronchiolitis is most commonly caused by:
Correct Answer: a
69. A 6-week-old baby presents with hypotonia, jaundice, and hoarseness. The investigation to be done is:
Correct Answer: c
70. Which of the following is not seen in rickets?
Correct Answer: d
71. Which congenital heart disease manifests in the first week of life?
Correct Answer: c
72. The type of cerebral palsy seen in kernicterus is:
Correct Answer: b
73. Inguinal hernia is _____ in males than females:
Correct Answer: b
74. Pulmonary surfactant is produced by:
Correct Answer: b
75. What is the minute volume of a neonate?
Correct Answer: b
76. External genitalia differentiation occurs at which week of pregnancy?
Correct Answer: a
77. The lower uterine segment is formed during labor by:
Correct Answer: a
78. Hysterosalpingography (HSG) is done on which day of a 28-day regular cycle?
Correct Answer: a
79. Gestational diabetes screening is done at:
Correct Answer: a
80. Which of the following drugs is not given in pregnancy?
Correct Answer: d
81. High uric acid in pre-eclampsia causes:
Correct Answer: a
82. During labor, maternal hyperventilation leads to:
Correct Answer: b
83. Rapid administration of MgSO4 causes:
Correct Answer: a
84. Which statement about thyroidectomy is true?
Correct Answer: c
85. The site of pain in ethmoidal sinusitis is:
Correct Answer: c
86. Congenital talipes equinovarus (CTEV) is a lesion of the:
Correct Answer: d
87. The most common complaint of TB spine in adolescents is:
Correct Answer: b
88. Heberden nodes are seen in:
Correct Answer: a
89. The deformity seen in malunion of supracondylar fracture of the humerus is:
Correct Answer: c
90. The law of bone remodeling by stress was given by:
Correct Answer: b
91. If a woman cannot comb her hair, which muscle is affected?
Correct Answer: c
92. In which of the following signs does a skin lesion reappear after minimal trauma?
Correct Answer: b
93. Warts are caused by:
Correct Answer: a
94. The combination used in coal tar preparations is:
Correct Answer: b
95. Erythema nodosum is due to:
Correct Answer: a
96. Which of the following is not a component of the epidemiological triad?
Correct Answer: d
97. Treatment of recurrent filariasis in an endemic area is:
Correct Answer: d
98. Cancer incidence is measured by:
Correct Answer: a
99. Which of the following are neglected tropical diseases?
Correct Answer: c
100. The personality disorder commonly associated with anorexia nervosa is:
Correct Answer: a