NAMS 2019

MEC Common Entrance Exam (MD/MS) NAMS 2019

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1. The anterior gastric nerve fiber mainly contains nerve from:
  • a. Right vagal fiber
  • b. Left vagal fiber
  • c. Celiac plexus
  • d. Superior mesenteric plexus
Correct Answer: b
2. Which nerve lies close to Wharton's duct?
  • a. Facial nerve
  • b. Lingual nerve
  • c. Hypoglossal nerve
  • d. Spinal accessory nerve
Correct Answer: b
3. At the 10th-12th week of gestation, rotation of the midgut occurs by:
  • a. 180° clockwise
  • b. 180° anticlockwise
  • c. 270° clockwise
  • d. 270° anticlockwise
Correct Answer: d
4. The structures present in the renal pedicle from anterior to posterior are:
  • a. Renal artery, Collecting system, Renal vein
  • b. Collecting system, Renal vein, Renal artery
  • c. Renal vein, Gonadal artery, Collecting system
  • d. Renal vein, Renal artery, Collecting system
Correct Answer: d
5. The cingulate gyrus:
  • a. Lies below the corpus callosum
  • b. Is associated with the limbic system
  • c. Controls the micturition system
  • d. Is associated with the posterior thalamus
Correct Answer: b
6. The posterior group of axillary lymph nodes lies along the:
  • a. Axillary vein
  • b. Subscapular vessels
  • c. Thoracic vessels
  • d. Suprascapular vessels
Correct Answer: b
7. The anterior boundary of the inguinal canal is formed by:
  • a. Fascia transversalis
  • b. Fascia transversalis and internal oblique
  • c. Aponeurosis of external oblique and internal oblique muscle fibers
  • d. Aponeurosis of external oblique and fascia transversalis
Correct Answer: c
8. The bare area of the liver is devoid of peritoneum because the covering is limited by the:
  • a. Ligamentum teres
  • b. Falciform ligament
  • c. Coronary ligament
  • d. Triangular ligament
Correct Answer: c
9. The innermost layer of the intervertebral disc is:
  • a. Annulus fibrosus
  • b. Nucleus pulposus
  • c. Nucleus reticularis
  • d. Vertebral body
Correct Answer: b
10. True statement about baroreceptors:
  • a. They are present in the carotid sinus
  • b. They respond to increased levels of carbon dioxide in blood
  • c. They respond to decreased levels of oxygen in blood
  • d. They respond to changes in blood pH
Correct Answer: a
11. Crossed hemiplegia occurs due to a lesion in the:
  • a. Brainstem
  • b. Internal capsule
  • c. Cerebellum
  • d. Basal ganglia
Correct Answer: a
12. In metabolic acidosis, there will be:
  • a. Decreased pH, low bicarbonate, low PCO2
  • b. Decreased pH, high bicarbonate, high PCO2
  • c. Increased pH, low bicarbonate, low PCO2
  • d. Increased pH, high bicarbonate, high PCO2
Correct Answer: a
13. Broca's area is situated in the:
  • a. Superior temporal gyrus
  • b. Inferior temporal gyrus
  • c. Inferior frontal gyrus
  • d. Superior frontal gyrus
Correct Answer: c
14. The third heart sound is heard due to:
  • a. Rapid closure of the mitral valve
  • b. Forced filling of stiff ventricles
  • c. Forced opening of the AV valve
  • d. Initial passive filling of the ventricles
Correct Answer: d
15. Cytokines act via:
  • a. Hormonal response
  • b. Neuronal response
  • c. Neurohormonal response
  • d. Inflammatory response
Correct Answer: d
16. The hormone that is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland is:
  • a. Somatotropin
  • b. Prolactin
  • c. Gonadotropins
  • d. Oxytocin
Correct Answer: d
17. Pain and temperature carrying fibers in the lateral spinothalamic tract decussate at:
  • a. The same level as their entry point
  • b. 1-2 levels above their entry point
  • c. The medulla
  • d. They do not decussate
Correct Answer: b
18. Which of the following is a non-benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic?
  • a. Alprazolam
  • b. Lorazepam
  • c. Midazolam
  • d. Zolpidem
Correct Answer: d
19. Which of the following is a non-beta lactam antibiotic?
  • a. Methicillin
  • b. Ticarcillin
  • c. Linezolid
  • d. Cefixime
Correct Answer: c
20. Which drug causes hemolysis in G6PD deficiency?
  • a. Sulfadiazine
  • b. Ceftazidime
  • c. Amoxicillin
  • d. Metronidazole
Correct Answer: a
21. A hypertensive patient on amlodipine is responding well to treatment, but he needs to change antihypertensive drugs most likely because of:
  • a. Swelling of lower limbs
  • b. Arrhythmia
  • c. Heart block
  • d. Increased urinary frequency
Correct Answer: a
22. Which beta blocker has additional vasodilating properties?
  • a. Metoprolol
  • b. Nebivolol
  • c. Atenolol
  • d. Bisoprolol
Correct Answer: b
23. Which statement about the newer antidiabetic drug empagliflozin is true?
  • a. It acts via inhibition of SGLT1 transporter
  • b. It should not be used when eGFR is less than 45
  • c. It decreases insulin resistance in tissues
  • d. It increases insulin production
Correct Answer: b
24. In severe hemophilia, the level of factor VIII will be less than:
  • a. 0.5%
  • b. 10%
  • c. 1%
  • d. 30%
Correct Answer: c
25. Gastric polyps associated with H. pylori infection are:
  • a. Anaplastic
  • b. Hypertrophic
  • c. Metaplastic
  • d. Hyperplastic
Correct Answer: d
26. Atheromatous plaques are formed mainly by:
  • a. Cholesterol and triglycerides
  • b. Cholesterol and cholesterol esters
  • c. Low density lipoproteins
  • d. Very low density lipoproteins
Correct Answer: b
27. Which of the following is seen in microangiopathic hemolytic anemia?
  • a. Anemia, decreased haptoglobin, blood cells in urine
  • b. Anemia, increased haptoglobin, blood cells in urine
  • c. Anemia, decreased haptoglobin, fragmented RBCs in urine
  • d. Anemia, increased haptoglobin, fragmented RBCs in urine
Correct Answer: c
28. Open granuloma is associated with:
  • a. Tuberculosis
  • b. Leishmaniasis
  • c. Sarcoidosis
  • d. All of the above
Correct Answer: a
29. In late-stage squamous cell carcinoma, organ preservation methods are done in:
  • a. Oral cavity
  • b. Posterior tongue
  • c. Larynx
  • d. Pharynx
Correct Answer: c
30. Long-term immobilization of hyaline cartilage leads to:
  • a. Conversion to phosphate hyaluronidase
  • b. Decreased production of proteoglycans
  • c. Increased destruction of cartilage
  • d. Conversion to elastic cartilage
Correct Answer: b
31. Which statement about hepatitis C virus is true?
  • a. HCV rapid diagnostic test is positive in the window phase
  • b. Hepatitis C genotype 1b is associated with high risk of hepatocellular carcinoma
  • c. A vaccine is available for Hepatitis C
  • d. It is not transmitted by blood transfusion
Correct Answer: b
32. Which disease is associated with Epstein-Barr virus?
  • a. Erythema infectiosum
  • b. Roseola infantum
  • c. Measles
  • d. Infectious mononucleosis
Correct Answer: d
33. Which viral infection typically presents with absence of fever?
  • a. Influenza
  • b. Respiratory syncytial virus
  • c. Metapneumovirus
  • d. Rhinovirus
Correct Answer: d
34. The infective form of hookworm is:
  • a. Egg
  • b. Filariform larvae
  • c. Rhabditiform larvae
  • d. Adult worm
Correct Answer: b
35. The tuberculin test is which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
  • a. Type I
  • b. Type II
  • c. Type III
  • d. Type IV
Correct Answer: d
36. The presumptive test to diagnose Pseudomonas infection is:
  • a. Oxidase positive
  • b. Coagulase positive
  • c. EMB agar
  • d. Loeffler's medium
Correct Answer: a
37. Immediate antibody reaction is assessed by:
  • a. End-point nephelometry
  • b. FISH (Fluorescence in situ hybridization)
  • c. Microarray
  • d. None of the above
Correct Answer: a
38. Spalding sign is seen in:
  • a. Intrauterine fetal death
  • b. Hydrocephalus
  • c. Spontaneous abortion
  • d. Neonatal death
Correct Answer: a
39. Cystic fibrosis does not typically involve which organ?
  • a. Liver
  • b. Lungs
  • c. Pancreas
  • d. Kidneys
Correct Answer: d
40. In chronic type 2 respiratory failure, there will be:
  • a. Increased FEV1
  • b. Increased FVC/FEV1 ratio
  • c. Decreased pH in blood
  • d. Increased bicarbonate level
Correct Answer: d
41. Which disease condition is associated with thrombosis?
  • a. Hereditary spherocytosis
  • b. Sickle cell anemia
  • c. G6PD deficiency
  • d. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Correct Answer: d
42. Distributive shock is seen in all except:
  • a. Severe heart failure
  • b. Liver failure
  • c. Anaphylactic shock
  • d. Septic shock
Correct Answer: a
43. In which condition is ascites not associated with portal hypertension?
  • a. Constrictive pericarditis
  • b. Left heart failure
  • c. Budd-Chiari syndrome
  • d. Nephrotic syndrome
Correct Answer: d
44. Early inspiratory crackles are heard in:
  • a. Left heart failure
  • b. Fibrosing alveolitis
  • c. Pneumonia
  • d. Chronic bronchitis
Correct Answer: d
45. The autoantibody that is associated with drug-induced lupus and is 95% specific for SLE is:
  • a. Anti-nuclear antibody
  • b. Anti-ds-DNA antibody
  • c. Anti-Smith antibody
  • d. Anti-histone antibody
Correct Answer: d
46. In Prinzmetal angina:
  • a. Chest pain lasts more than 15 minutes
  • b. ST changes are seen on ECG
  • c. Cardiac biomarkers are raised
  • d. Mononitrates are the treatment of choice
Correct Answer: b
47. An ejection systolic murmur over the aortic area that precedes the carotid upstroke is characteristic of:
  • a. Supravalvular aortic stenosis
  • b. Subvalvular aortic stenosis
  • c. Valvular aortic stenosis
  • d. Subaortic stenosis
Correct Answer: a
48. Yellowish discoloration of the body is seen in all conditions except:
  • a. Picric acid ingestion
  • b. Flava
  • c. Carotenemia
  • d. Hepatitis
Correct Answer: b
49. Which statement about Graves' disease is true?
  • a. TSH level is very low
  • b. T3 is normal and T4 is high
  • c. Both T3 and T4 are low
  • d. T3 is high and T4 is normal
Correct Answer: a
50. Tylosis is associated with:
  • a. Esophageal carcinoma
  • b. Gastric carcinoma
  • c. Pancreatic carcinoma
  • d. Colonic carcinoma
Correct Answer: a
51. A 5-year-old child with head injury opens eyes to painful stimulus, localizes pain, and produces inappropriate words. The GCS score will be:
  • a. 5
  • b. 8
  • c. 10
  • d. 12
Correct Answer: c
52. The most common breast tumor is:
  • a. Ductal carcinoma
  • b. Lobular carcinoma
  • c. Medullary carcinoma
  • d. Inflammatory carcinoma
Correct Answer: a
53. The most common testicular tumor is:
  • a. Germ cell tumor
  • b. Interstitial tumor
  • c. Testicular lymphoma
  • d. Epithelial tumor
Correct Answer: a
54. In advanced gastric carcinoma, according to Borrmann's classification, linitis plastica is graded as:
  • a. Grade I
  • b. Grade II
  • c. Grade III
  • d. Grade IV
Correct Answer: d
55. Bilateral subcapsular orchidectomy is performed in:
  • a. Carcinoma of the prostate
  • b. Carcinoma of the testis
  • c. Carcinoma of the penis
  • d. Carcinoma of the bladder
Correct Answer: a
56. In carcinoma of the prostate undergoing staging, the earliest lymph node to drain is:
  • a. Internal iliac
  • b. External iliac
  • c. Presacral
  • d. Obturator
Correct Answer: d
57. The treatment of choice for recurrent duodenal ulcer is:
  • a. Vagotomy with antrectomy
  • b. Vagotomy with drainage
  • c. Highly selective vagotomy
  • d. Truncal vagotomy
Correct Answer: a
58. In anal fissure:
  • a. The internal anal sphincter is cut to decrease anal tone
  • b. It is painless
  • c. It is more common in males
  • d. It lies above the anal verge and does not extend beyond the dentate line
Correct Answer: a
59. Clinically, a femoral hernia is located:
  • a. Medial and superior to the pubic tubercle
  • b. Lateral and inferior to the pubic tubercle
  • c. At the saphenofemoral junction
  • d. Lateral and superior to the pubic tubercle
Correct Answer: b
60. The Pringle maneuver includes clamping of the:
  • a. Hepatic artery and hepatic vein
  • b. Hepatic artery only
  • c. Hepatic vein only
  • d. Portal pedicle (hepatoduodenal ligament)
Correct Answer: d
61. An elderly female with breast carcinoma underwent radical mastectomy. After the procedure, she developed winging of the scapula. The nerve roots affected are:
  • a. C4, 5, 6
  • b. C5, 6
  • c. C6, 7
  • d. C6, 7, 8
Correct Answer: b
62. A child presented with burns. The amount of fluid to be resuscitated within the first 24 hours is:
  • a. Equal to the Parkland formula
  • b. Less than the Parkland formula
  • c. More than the Parkland formula
  • d. Determined by Parkland formula and 24-hour urinary output
Correct Answer: c
63. A patient underwent radical cystectomy, and during the procedure the surgeon mistakenly cut the obturator nerve. In later stages of life, the patient will have difficulty in:
  • a. Adduction of the thigh
  • b. Abduction of the thigh
  • c. Flexion of the hip
  • d. External rotation of the thigh
Correct Answer: a
64. Which of the following is spared in saphenofemoral ligation and great saphenous vein stripping?
  • a. Superficial femoral vein
  • b. Superficial external pudendal vein
  • c. Superficial inferior epigastric vein
  • d. Deep external pudendal vein
Correct Answer: a
65. The most common injury seen in newborns with weight large for gestational age is:
  • a. Intraventricular hemorrhage
  • b. Cephalohematoma
  • c. Brachial plexus injury
  • d. Cervical fracture
Correct Answer: c
66. A lady gave birth to a child at term. The child has thin upper lips, a flat nose, and small eye openings. The mother used to use:
  • a. Cocaine
  • b. Heroin
  • c. Nicotine
  • d. Alcohol
Correct Answer: d
67. A 7-day-old preterm neonate shows intracranial hemorrhage on CT scan. The most common type of hemorrhage seen in premature babies is:
  • a. Intraventricular hemorrhage
  • b. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
  • c. Intraparenchymal hemorrhage
  • d. Basal ganglia hemorrhage
Correct Answer: a
68. In a 9-day-old neonate with conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which drug should be avoided?
  • a. Ceftriaxone
  • b. Cefotaxime
  • c. Ceftazidime
  • d. Ceftaroline
Correct Answer: a
69. What is the correct order of pubertal development?
  • a. Growth spurt, thelarche, adrenarche, menarche, gonadarche, pubarche
  • b. Adrenarche, gonadarche, thelarche, growth spurt, pubarche, menarche
  • c. Menarche, adrenarche, gonadarche, thelarche, growth spurt, pubarche
  • d. Pubarche, menarche, adrenarche, gonadarche, thelarche, growth spurt
Correct Answer: b
70. An 8-day-old neonate with acute kidney injury and a palpable flank mass. The most likely cause is:
  • a. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
  • b. Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN)
  • c. Renal vein thrombosis
  • d. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)
Correct Answer: c
71. The correct sequence of development is:
  • a. Linear development, gonadarche, thelarche, adrenarche, menarche
  • b. Linear development, adrenarche, thelarche, gonadarche, menarche
  • c. Linear development, adrenarche, gonadarche, thelarche, menarche
  • d. Linear development, thelarche, adrenarche, menarche, gonadarche
Correct Answer: c
72. The genetic disorder with karyotype 47,XXY is:
  • a. Down syndrome
  • b. Patau syndrome
  • c. Edwards syndrome
  • d. Klinefelter syndrome
Correct Answer: d
73. A 26-year-old primigravida in the second stage of labor takes a longer time. After a prolonged second stage of labor, the baby is delivered by vacuum extraction. The advantage of vacuum over forceps delivery is that there will be less chance of:
  • a. Cephalohematoma
  • b. Third-degree perineal tear
  • c. Intraventricular hemorrhage
  • d. Caput succedaneum
Correct Answer: b
74. In severe pre-eclampsia, the oncotic pressure will:
  • a. Decrease
  • b. Increase
  • c. Remain normal
  • d. None of the above
Correct Answer: a
75. The most common site of endometriosis is:
  • a. Ovary
  • b. Fallopian tube
  • c. Uterosacral ligament
  • d. Surgical scar
Correct Answer: a
76. Oligohydramnios is seen in:
  • a. Duodenal atresia
  • b. Renal agenesis
  • c. Open spina bifida
  • d. Maternal diabetes mellitus
Correct Answer: b
77. The least common type of female pelvis is:
  • a. Gynecoid
  • b. Anthropoid
  • c. Android
  • d. Platypelloid
Correct Answer: d
78. Oral contraceptive pills cause:
  • a. Increased risk of breast cancer
  • b. Increased risk of endometrial cancer
  • c. Increased risk of ovarian cancer
  • d. Increased risk of vulval cancer
Correct Answer: a
79. Malignant otitis externa is caused by:
  • a. Haemophilus influenzae
  • b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • c. Staphylococcus aureus
  • d. Proteus vulgaris
Correct Answer: b
80. The fabella is:
  • a. The largest sesamoid bone
  • b. Always present in the body
  • c. Attached to the lateral head of gastrocnemius
  • d. Present in the tendon of quadriceps femoris
Correct Answer: c
81. The most common site of metastasis of osteosarcoma is:
  • a. Skeletal tissue
  • b. Liver
  • c. Lungs
  • d. Lymph nodes
Correct Answer: c
82. An elderly female had a Colles' fracture and received proper treatment, but after a few months she developed severe pain, stiffness, and cyanosis of the same hand. X-ray shows osteolytic activity at the center. The cause is most likely:
  • a. Complex regional pain syndrome (Reflex sympathetic dystrophy)
  • b. Osteoarthritis
  • c. Osteoporosis
  • d. Non-union
Correct Answer: a
83. The pathognomonic sign of fracture is:
  • a. Redness
  • b. Swelling
  • c. Tenderness
  • d. Crepitus
Correct Answer: d
84. Radial nerve injury is most commonly associated with fracture of the humerus at the:
  • a. Proximal end
  • b. Surgical neck
  • c. Mid-shaft
  • d. Distal end
Correct Answer: c
85. Equinovarus deformity of the foot is seen due to a lesion of which nerve?
  • a. Tibial nerve
  • b. Plantar nerve
  • c. Common peroneal nerve
  • d. Saphenous nerve
Correct Answer: c
86. A person in a car accident is thrown forward and strikes their knee against the dashboard. The patient presents to the ER with pain, swelling, and the hip in flexion, adduction, and internal rotation. The most common associated injury is:
  • a. Anterior dislocation of the hip
  • b. Posterior dislocation of the hip
  • c. Central dislocation of the hip
  • d. Fracture of the neck of femur
Correct Answer: b
87. The earliest feature of osteomyelitis on radiograph is:
  • a. Periosteal reaction
  • b. Decreased muscular and fat planes
  • c. Presence of sequestrum
  • d. Presence of involucrum
Correct Answer: b
88. The decrease in bone density that must occur to be visible on radiograph in osteopenia is:
  • a. 10%
  • b. 20-30%
  • c. 30-50%
  • d. 50-70%
Correct Answer: c
89. A renal cyst at the cortex with a size of 2.5 cm, which is anechoic, does not enhance on contrast, and is not septated, would be classified according to Bosniak grading as:
  • a. Grade I
  • b. Grade II
  • c. Grade IIF
  • d. Grade III
Correct Answer: a
90. The most common source of lead poisoning in children is:
  • a. Unfiltered water
  • b. Contaminated soil
  • c. Lead-based paints
  • d. Mercury thermometer
Correct Answer: c
91. The treatment of choice for progressive limb swelling in a filariasis-endemic zone is:
  • a. Medical treatment with DEC (Diethylcarbamazine)
  • b. Medical plus surgical treatment
  • c. Surgical treatment
  • d. Skin care and hygiene
Correct Answer: d
92. The pathognomonic hallmark of rubella is:
  • a. Conjunctival congestion
  • b. Koplik's spots
  • c. Posterior occipito-cervical lymphadenopathy
  • d. Facial rash
Correct Answer: c
93. A sandpaper-like rash is seen in:
  • a. Scarlet fever
  • b. Mumps
  • c. Measles
  • d. Rubella
Correct Answer: a
94. Accuracy and precision are plotted on a:
  • a. Levy-Jennings chart
  • b. Holland and Ross chart
  • c. Correlation chart
  • d. Forrest chart
Correct Answer: a
95. The inability to get an accurate result in a small sample size study is:
  • a. Measurement error
  • b. Type I error
  • c. Type II error
  • d. Alpha error
Correct Answer: c
96. Positive predictive value denotes:
  • a. True positive rate
  • b. True negative rate
  • c. False positive rate
  • d. False negative rate
Correct Answer: a
97. The standard deviation (SD) of the mean with a 95% confidence interval is covered by:
  • a. Less than 2 SD
  • b. Greater than 2 SD
  • c. Equal to 2 SD
  • d. ± 2 SD (approximately 1.96 SD)
Correct Answer: d
98. The advantage of a double-blind study is that it:
  • a. Minimizes subject bias
  • b. Minimizes investigator bias
  • c. Minimizes both subject and investigator bias
  • d. Minimizes sampling error
Correct Answer: c
99. The definition of health given by WHO includes which of the following dimensions?
  • a. Social well-being
  • b. Physical well-being
  • c. Mental well-being
  • d. All of the above
Correct Answer: d

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