Sudhurpaschim Loksewa 2081/2082 Medical Officer

Sudhurpaschim Loksewa Medical Officer

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1. Which of the following conditions is characterized by a "snow storm" appearance on ultrasound (USG)?
  • a. Hydramnios
  • b. Hydrocephalus
  • c. Ectopic Pregnancy
  • d. Hydatidiform mole
Correct Answer: d
2. A 35-year-old G1P0 woman at 39 weeks of gestation presents with a prolonged second stage of labor. Fetal scalp pH is 7.18 and lactate is 5.8 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most accurate predictor of neonatal encephalopathy?
  • a. Apgar score ≤ 3 at 5 minutes
  • b. Umbilical artery pH < 7.0
  • c. Base deficit > 12 mmol/L
  • d. Abnormal fetal heart tracing (category III)
Correct Answer: c
3. Which of the following anti-tuberculosis (ATT) drugs is contraindicated during pregnancy?
  • a. Streptomycin
  • b. Isoniazid
  • c. Rifampicin
  • d. Pyrazinamide
Correct Answer: a
4. A 28-year-old G3P2 woman delivers a 4.2 kg baby vaginally. Following delivery, she experiences heavy bleeding (>800 mL) and has a boggy uterus. Her blood pressure is 90/54 mmHg and her pulse is 130 bpm. What is the most likely cause of her postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)?
  • a. Retained placental fragments
  • b. Cervical laceration
  • c. Coagulopathy
  • d. Uterine atony
Correct Answer: d
5. Lovset's maneuver is performed for the:
  • a. Delivery of the after-coming head
  • b. Delivery of the placenta
  • c. Delivery of the legs
  • d. Delivery of the arms
Correct Answer: d
6. A 35-year-old woman (Para 3) requests a long-term reversible contraceptive method. She has no significant medical history. Which is the most appropriate option?
  • a. DMPA injection
  • b. Copper T IUD
  • c. Combined oral contraceptive pills
  • d. Emergency contraceptive pills
Correct Answer: b
7. Vomiting is a common feature of the following conditions except:
  • a. Hydatidiform mole
  • b. Multiple pregnancy
  • c. First pregnancy
  • d. Missed miscarriage
Correct Answer: d
8. What does HELLP syndrome, a potential complication of eclampsia, stand for?
  • a. Hypertension, Edema, Low lipids, Proteinuria
  • b. Hemolysis, Elevated Liver Enzymes, Low Platelets
  • c. Hyperglycemia, Edema, Low Platelets, Preeclampsia
  • d. High Enzymes, Low Leukocytes, Proteinuria
Correct Answer: b
9. On day 3 of life, a mother complains that her newborn has lost weight. What is the best course of action?
  • a. Give ORS
  • b. Assure the mother that this is normal
  • c. Assess the newborn for any anomalies or diseases
  • d. Instruct the mother to increase the baby's feeding frequency
Correct Answer: b
10. Cyanotic congenital heart disease includes all of the following except:
  • a. Tricuspid atresia
  • b. Tetralogy of Fallot
  • c. Atrial septal defect
  • d. Transposition of the great arteries
Correct Answer: c
11. A neonate with severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) undergoes haploidentical hematopoietic stem cell transplant (HSCT) without conditioning. Which immune cell type is expected to reconstitute first post-transplant?
  • a. B cells
  • b. NK cells
  • c. Neutrophils
  • d. T cells
Correct Answer: d
12. What is the recommended duration of antibiotic therapy for native valve bacterial endocarditis?
  • a. 1-2 weeks
  • b. 2-4 weeks
  • c. 4-6 weeks
  • d. 6-8 weeks
Correct Answer: c
13. Stranger anxiety normally develops in infants between the ages of:
  • a. 3 and 9 months
  • b. 9 and 18 months
  • c. 24 and 36 months
  • d. 36 and 48 months
Correct Answer: b
14. A 7-year-old with sickle cell disease (HbSS) develops recurrent vaso-occlusive crises despite hydroxyurea. Which of the following novel therapies is most effective in reducing hospitalization rates?
  • a. Voxelotor (HbS polymerization inhibitor)
  • b. Crizanlizumab (P-selection inhibitor)
  • c. L-glutamine
  • d. Stem cell transplantation
Correct Answer: b
15. The hallmark of meningitis in infants is:
  • a. Photophobia
  • b. High-pitched cry
  • c. Stiff neck
  • d. Hematuria
Correct Answer: c
16. For most children with enuresis, the only recommended test is:
  • a. Urinalysis
  • b. Blood sugar
  • c. Serum electrolytes
  • d. Abdominal Sonography
Correct Answer: a
17. A 9-year-old presents with polyarthritis, elevated ESR, fever, and a prolonged PR interval on ECG, but no evidence of carditis. Which of the following best fits the minor criteria for Rheumatic Fever?
  • a. Polyarthritis
  • b. Fever and prolonged PR interval
  • c. Elevated ASO
  • d. Chorea
Correct Answer: b
18. A 5-year-old from a rural area presents with night blindness and dry conjunctiva. Bitot's spots are noted on examination. What is the first-line management?
  • a. Oral vitamin A 2 lakh IU stat
  • b. Daily multivitamin syrup
  • c. IV vitamin A
  • d. Referral for ophthalmology evaluation only
Correct Answer: a
19. Which of the following best describes the typical skin lesion in urticaria?
  • a. Scaly, red plaques with silvery scales
  • b. Well-demarcated, itchy wheals that blanch with pressure
  • c. Non-blanching petechiae
  • d. Crusted pustules with central necrosis
Correct Answer: b
20. A 40-year-old man with ulcerative colitis refractory to biologics undergoes restorative proctocolectomy. Which J-pouch configuration demonstrates superior functional outcomes in long-term studies?
  • a. 10 cm J-pouch with hand-sewn anastomosis
  • b. 15 cm J-pouch with stapled anastomosis
  • c. J-pouch with loop ileostomy
  • d. Straight ileoanal anastomosis
Correct Answer: a
21. A 7-year-old boy presents with recurrent "targetoid" erythematous plaques on the palms and soles after a Mycoplasma pneumonia infection. What is the most definitive diagnostic test?
  • a. PCR for M. pneumonia in throat swab
  • b. Skin biopsy for direct immunofluorescence
  • c. Serum IgE levels
  • d. Patch testing
Correct Answer: b
22. Which of the following is also known as a "Rodent Ulcer"?
  • a. Squamous cell carcinoma
  • b. Basal cell carcinoma
  • c. Both A and B
  • d. None
Correct Answer: b
23. A patient presents with confusion, ataxia, and nystagmus two days after alcohol cessation. The most likely diagnosis is:
  • a. Korsakoff psychosis
  • b. Wernicke encephalopathy
  • c. Delirium tremens
  • d. Alcohol hallucinosis
Correct Answer: c
24. Regarding snake bites in Nepal, which of the following is NOT true?
  • a. Around 20,000 people are bitten, resulting in over 1,000 deaths annually
  • b. 89 snake species have been recorded, of which 17 species are highly venomous
  • c. National target is a 10% reduction in deaths and disabilities due to snake bite envenomation by 2030
  • d. Latest national guideline for snake bite management in Nepal was released in 2019
Correct Answer: a
25. The addition of epinephrine to Lignocaine:
  • a. Increases distribution of LA
  • b. Decreases absorption of LA
  • c. Decreases duration of LA
  • d. Increases metabolism of LA
Correct Answer: b
26. A 55-year-old man with CKD presents with nausea, vomiting, and altered mental status. Labs: BUN 110mg/dL, Creatinine 8.5mg/dL, Serum potassium 6.2mmol/L. ECG shows peaked T waves; pH is 7.34. What is the most appropriate next step?
  • a. Administer oral potassium binders
  • b. Observe and repeat labs in 6 hours
  • c. Begin emergency dialysis
  • d. Increase fluid intake
Correct Answer: c
27. A 35-year-old female presents with palpitations, heat intolerance, and weight loss. TSH is undetectable, and free T4 is elevated. Radioactive iodine uptake (RAIU) is diffusely increased. What is the best initial treatment?
  • a. Propranolol
  • b. Methimazole
  • c. Radioactive iodine ablation
  • d. Thyroidectomy
Correct Answer: a
28. A 20-year-old female with type 1 diabetes presents with nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Examination shows: BP 90/60, deep rapid breathing (Kussmaul respiration). Urine shows ketones, and blood glucose is 480mg/dL. What is the first priority in management?
  • a. Insulin infusion
  • b. Sodium bicarbonate
  • c. Fluid resuscitation
  • d. Potassium replacement
Correct Answer: c
29. Evanescent elevations of the skin caused by edema of the dermis are:
  • a. Macules
  • b. Papules
  • c. Wheals
  • d. Nodules
Correct Answer: c
30. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of depression?
  • a. Loss of interest in daily activities
  • b. Delusion of guilt
  • c. Suicidal ideas
  • d. Delusion of grandiosity
Correct Answer: d
31. A patient opens eyes to pain, makes incomprehensible sounds, and withdraws from painful stimulus. What is the GCS score?
  • a. 6
  • b. 5
  • c. 11
  • d. 8
Correct Answer: d
32. First rank symptoms of schizophrenia include all except:
  • a. Ambivalence
  • b. Running commentary
  • c. Primary delusion
  • d. Somatic passivity
Correct Answer: a
33. A 60-year-old male with atrial fibrillation on warfarin presents with melena and an INR of 8.5. What is the most appropriate immediate management?
  • a. Vitamin K orally
  • b. Fresh frozen plasma
  • c. Prothrombin complex concentrate
  • d. Platelet transfusion
Correct Answer: c
34. An essential feature of nephritic syndrome is:
  • a. Proteinuria
  • b. Hypoalbuminaemia
  • c. Hyperlipidemia
  • d. Hematuria
Correct Answer: d
35. A 30-year-old female presents with fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance. TSH is elevated (12 mIU/L) and free T4 is low. She has a history of postpartum hemorrhage. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • a. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
  • b. Postpartum thyroiditis
  • c. Sheehan's syndrome
  • d. Grave's disease
Correct Answer: c
36. A "bird beak" sign during a barium swallow is a characteristic radiographic feature seen in which disease?
  • a. Achalasia
  • b. Plummer Vinson Syndrome
  • c. Zenker's Diverticulitis
  • d. Esophageal Carcinoma
Correct Answer: a
37. What is the initial management step for a hemodynamically unstable UGI bleed?
  • a. Immediate proton pump inhibitor (PPI) infusion
  • b. Blood transfusion + IV fluids
  • c. Urgent colonoscopy
  • d. Nasogastric tube placement
Correct Answer: b
38. The most common acute presentation of sickle cell anemia is:
  • a. Priapism
  • b. Bone pain
  • c. Fever
  • d. Splenomegaly
Correct Answer: b
39. A 65-year-old male with type 2 diabetes and hypertension presents with progressive fatigue, nausea, and hyperkalemia (K 6.2 mEq/L). Serum creatinine is elevated from baseline. He has been taking lisinopril 20mg daily and spironolactone 25mg daily for 6 months. What is the most likely cause of his acute kidney injury (AKI)?
  • a. Diabetic nephropathy
  • b. Acute interstitial nephritis
  • c. Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system inhibitor-induced AKI
  • d. Contrast-induced nephropathy
Correct Answer: c
40. Which of the following is a component of Light's criteria used to distinguish pleural transudate from exudate?
  • a. Pleural fluid protein : Serum protein ratio > 1.5
  • b. Pleural fluid protein : Serum protein ratio < 1.5
  • c. Pleural fluid protein : Serum protein ratio > 0.5
  • d. Pleural fluid protein : Serum protein ratio < 0.5
Correct Answer: c
41. The current national protocol for the treatment of drug-susceptible complicated or severe extra-pulmonary TB (CNS-TB, TB pericarditis, musculoskeletal, miliary TB) is:
  • a. 2 HRZE + 7-10 HRE
  • b. 2 HRZE + 4 HR
  • c. 2 HRZE + 10 HR
  • d. 6 HRZE + Levofloxacin
Correct Answer: c
42. A 40-year-old woman with migraine is prescribed lasmiditan. What is the drug's unique mechanism of action compared to triptans?
  • a. Selective 5-HT1F receptor agonism without vasoconstriction
  • b. Inhibition of CGRP receptors
  • c. Non-opioid central analgesia
  • d. GABA receptor modulation
Correct Answer: a
43. A young male presents with flaccid bullae and oral erosions. What is the diagnosis?
  • a. Pemphigoid
  • b. Erythema multiforme
  • c. Pemphigus Vulgaris
  • d. Dermatitis herpetiformis
Correct Answer: c
44. A 70-year-old woman with osteoporosis is prescribed romosozumab. Which of the following is the most serious adverse effect associated with this drug?
  • a. Cardiovascular events (MI, stroke)
  • b. Hypocalcemia
  • c. Osteonecrosis of the jaw
  • d. Atypical femoral fractures
Correct Answer: a
45. A 35-year-old HIV-positive man presents with dry cough, fever, and shortness of breath for one week. A chest X-ray shows bilateral ground-glass opacities. His CD4 count is 120 cells/mm³. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • a. Pulmonary tuberculosis
  • b. Bacterial pneumonia
  • c. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
  • d. COVID-19 pneumonia
Correct Answer: c
46. Wickham’s striae associated with shiny, flat-topped, violaceous papules is a hallmark morphological feature of which of the following?
  • a. Psoriasis
  • b. Lichen Planus
  • c. Drug eruption
  • d. Atopic Eczema
Correct Answer: b
47. A patient presents with acute abdominal pain that starts around the umbilicus and then shifts and localizes to the right iliac fossa. What is the provisional diagnosis?
  • a. Acute pancreatitis
  • b. Intestinal colic
  • c. Acute appendicitis
  • d. Ureteric colic
Correct Answer: c
48. A 25-year-old male presented with itchy silvery scales on the bilateral elbows and knees which bleed on removal. The diagnosis is:
  • a. Eczema
  • b. Lichen planus
  • c. Tinea
  • d. Psoriasis
Correct Answer: d
49. Bonney's test is used to determine:
  • a. Uterine prolapse
  • b. Stress urinary incontinence
  • c. Vesico vaginal fistula
  • d. Ureteric fistula
Correct Answer: b
50. Which of the following dermatophyte infections is most likely to present as a circular, scaly lesion with central clearing on the trunk?
  • a. Tinea pedis
  • b. Tinea corporis
  • c. Tinea cruris
  • d. Tinea capitis
Correct Answer: b
51. A 16-year-old girl presents with a history of sexual assault. The first step in the medico-legal protocol is:
  • a. Informing the police
  • b. Medical Examination
  • c. Taking informed consent
  • d. Collecting vaginal swab
Correct Answer: c
52. What does GESI stand for in the context of Nepal?
  • a. Gender Equity and Social Integration
  • b. Gender Equality and Social Inclusion
  • c. Group Equality and Social Involvement
  • d. General Equality and Social Independence
Correct Answer: b
53. The "One health approach" has been used to fight against:
  • a. Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR)
  • b. Malnutrition
  • c. Tuberculosis
  • d. Leprosy
Correct Answer: a
54. An entry wound caused by a high-velocity weapon in warfare is generally:
  • a. Larger and more irregular than the exit wound
  • b. Smaller and cleaner than the exit wound
  • c. Equal in size to the exit wound
  • d. Associated with no tissue damage
Correct Answer: b
55. The Human Body Organ Transplantation (regulation and prohibition) Act came into force in:
  • a. 2058 B.S.
  • b. 2068 B.S.
  • c. 2078 B.S.
  • d. 2082 B.S.
Correct Answer: b
56. A patient dies due to anesthesia overdose in a private hospital. Under the Consumer Protection Act, 2074, what is the maximum compensation the family can claim?
  • a. NPR 1 million
  • b. NPR 3 million
  • c. NPR 5 million
  • d. No upper limit
Correct Answer: d
57. Two identical twins will not have the same:
  • a. Fingerprints
  • b. Iris color
  • c. DNA
  • d. Blood Group
Correct Answer: a
58. Which of the following is the first visible postmortem change after death?
  • a. Rigor mortis
  • b. Putrefaction
  • c. Livor mortis (postmortem hypostasis)
  • d. Algor mortis
Correct Answer: a
59. "La facies sympathique" is a condition seen in cases of:
  • a. Hanging
  • b. Strangulation
  • c. Throttling
  • d. Railway accidents
Correct Answer: c
60. A suspect claims a gunshot wound was accidental during weapon cleaning. Which forensic finding most refutes this claim?
  • a. Contact range entry wound with muzzle imprint
  • b. Stippling pattern at 30 cm distance
  • c. Bullet trajectory angled downward
  • d. Gunpowder residue on the shooter's dominant hand
Correct Answer: b
61. The minimum number of antenatal visits in an uncomplicated pregnancy should be:
  • a. 4 times
  • b. 8 times
  • c. 12 times
  • d. 16 times
Correct Answer: b
62. A city reports a dengue outbreak with rising cases of dengue shock syndrome (CDSS). Which serological finding predicts progression to DSS and should trigger ICU referral?
  • a. Elevated IgG:IgM ratio
  • b. NS1 antigen positivity > 7 days
  • c. Platelet count < 500,000/µl
  • d. Plasma leakage on ultrasound
Correct Answer: d
63. A sudden rise in cholera cases is reported in a Terai district. What is the first step in investigating the outbreak?
  • a. Give antibiotics to all cases
  • b. Inform the media
  • c. Confirm the diagnosis and outbreak
  • d. Provide ORS to the community
Correct Answer: c
64. In a malaria endemic region, a new strategy combines seasonal malaria chemoprevention (SMC) with RTS, S/AS01 vaccination. Which outcome measure is most critical to assess this intervention's public health impact?
  • a. Parasite clearance time
  • b. Prevalence of asymptomatic parasitemia
  • c. All-cause under-5 mortality
  • d. Incidence of severe malaria anemia
Correct Answer: c
65. All of the following are true about incidence except:
  • a. The denominator includes the population at risk
  • b. The numerator includes the number of new cases
  • c. It does not include a unit of time
  • d. It is a rate
Correct Answer: c
66. Which of the following barriers can negatively affect the doctor-patient relationship?
  • a. Cultural differences
  • b. Clear explanations
  • c. Patient involvement in decisions
  • d. Good eye contact
Correct Answer: a
67. Pap Smear screening is an example of:
  • a. Primordial Prevention
  • b. Primary Prevention
  • c. Secondary Prevention
  • d. Tertiary Prevention
Correct Answer: c
68. The crude birth rate is calculated using:
  • a. (Total number of live births × 1000) / Mid-year population
  • b. (Total Population × 1000) / Live births
  • c. (Total deaths × 1000) / Mid-year population
  • d. (Total live births / Population) < 5 years
Correct Answer: a
69. A community health worker notes a cluster of acute hepatitis linked to contaminated groundwater. PCR testing confirms hepatitis E virus (HEV) genotype 1. Which intervention provides the most effective long-term prevention?
  • a. Mass vaccination with HEV recombinant vaccine
  • b. Household water chlorination
  • c. Improved sanitation and sewage management
  • d. Prophylactic ribavirin for high-risk individuals
Correct Answer: c
70. Herd immunity refers to:
  • a. Immunity in a community from disease
  • b. Protection of a population from disease when a critical proportion is immune
  • c. Immunity developed after infection in the community
  • d. Immunity gained through immunization
Correct Answer: b
71. The tendency of colonic carcinoma to metastasize is best assessed by:
  • a. Size of the tumor
  • b. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) levels
  • c. Depth of penetration of the bowel wall
  • d. Proportion of bowel circumference involved
Correct Answer: b
72. A 17-year-old presents with a sore throat, high-grade fever, muffled voice, and uvular deviation to the opposite side. What is the next best step in management?
  • a. IV fluids and observation
  • b. Needle aspiration or incision and drainage
  • c. Tonsillectomy
  • d. Steroid therapy
Correct Answer: b
73. The most visually disabling type of cataract is:
  • a. Cortical cataract
  • b. Nuclear cataract
  • c. Posterior subcapsular cataract
  • d. Anterior capsular cataract
Correct Answer: c
74. Which of the following anesthetic agents is contraindicated in patients with hypertension?
  • a. Ketamine
  • b. Propofol
  • c. Etomidate
  • d. Diazepam
Correct Answer: a
75. What is the most common site of osteoporotic fractures?
  • a. Femoral neck
  • b. Distal radius (Colles' fracture)
  • c. Vertebral bodies
  • d. Pelvis
Correct Answer: c
76. The most common cause of limb amputation in adults is:
  • a. Diabetes mellitus
  • b. Trauma
  • c. Malignancy
  • d. Peripheral arterial disease
Correct Answer: b
77. Which technique is commonly used for caries removal?
  • a. Air abrasion
  • b. Laser therapy
  • c. Ultrasonic scaling
  • d. Acid etching
Correct Answer: b
78. Carhart's notch is found in:
  • a. Otosclerosis
  • b. CSOM
  • c. Meniere's disease
  • d. Acoustic neuroma
Correct Answer: a
79. A 65-year-old diabetic presents with center-involving diabetic macular edema (CI-DME) and HbA1C of 7.2%. OCT shows central subfield thickness of 320µm. Which treatment demonstrates superior visual outcomes at 2 years based on the protocol AC trial?
  • a. Aflibercept intravitreal injections
  • b. Focal laser photocoagulation
  • c. Bevacizumab intravitreal injections
  • d. Subthreshold micro pulse laser
Correct Answer: a
80. Congenital hydrocele is best treated by:
  • a. Eversion of sac
  • b. Herniotomy
  • c. Lord's procedure
  • d. Excision of sac
Correct Answer: b
81. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Meniere's disease?
  • a. Vertigo
  • b. Pressure in ear
  • c. Diplopia
  • d. Tinnitus
Correct Answer: c
82. A 65-year-old chronic smoker presents with hemoptysis, weight loss, and a central lung mass. Histology shows keratin pearls. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • a. Adenocarcinoma
  • b. Small cell carcinoma
  • c. Squamous cell carcinoma
  • d. Large cell carcinoma
Correct Answer: c
83. Which of the following is usually NOT considered a benefit of minimal access surgery?
  • a. Reduced blood loss
  • b. Enhanced recovery and shorter hospital stay
  • c. Reduced operative time
  • d. Reduced surgical trauma
Correct Answer: d
84. A 60-year-old woman with stage III colon cancer completes adjuvant FOLFOX. What molecular marker indicates benefit from adding pembrolizumab if recurrence occurs?
  • a. Microsatellite instability high
  • b. KRAS mutation
  • c. HER2 amplification
  • d. BRAF V600E Mutation
Correct Answer: a
85. A 55-year-old male smoker presents with intermittent claudication in the legs. On examination, dorsalis pedis pulses are absent. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • a. Deep vein thrombosis
  • b. Varicose veins
  • c. Buerger's disease (TAO)
  • d. Cellulitis
Correct Answer: c
86. A 23-year-old male presents with right iliac fossa pain, fever, nausea, and rebound tenderness. His WBC is 13,000/mm³ with 80% neutrophils. What is the most likely Alvarado score range?
  • a. 2-3
  • b. 4-5
  • c. 7-8
  • d. 9-10
Correct Answer: c
87. A 70-year-old man with a 6.2 cm asymptomatic infra-renal AAA and a hostile abdomen (multiple prior laparotomies) is being evaluated for repair. Which approach is supported by the BEST-CLI trial for long-term durability?
  • a. Endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR) with percutaneous access
  • b. Open repair with synthetic graft
  • c. Hybrid repair with visceral de-branching
  • d. Conservative management with blood pressure control
Correct Answer: a
88. Which of the following swellings is brilliantly transilluminant?
  • a. Cystic Hygroma
  • b. Goiter
  • c. Dermoid Cyst
  • d. Sebaceous Cyst
Correct Answer: a
89. A mid-line neck swelling moving with tongue protrusion and swallowing is a:
  • a. Branchial cyst
  • b. Thyroglossal fistula
  • c. Dermoid cyst
  • d. Ludwig's angina
Correct Answer: b
90. Slip sign is seen in:
  • a. Lipoma
  • b. Desmoid tumor
  • c. Sebaceous cyst
  • d. Hernia
Correct Answer: a
91. The recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for neonatal resuscitation is:
  • a. 1:1
  • b. 1:2
  • c. 3:1
  • d. 1:4
Correct Answer: c
92. A 30-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) presents with avascular necrosis (AVN) of the femoral head. Which of the following genetic polymorphisms is most strongly associated with glucocorticoid-induced AVN in SLE patients?
  • a. MTHFR C677T
  • b. APOE ε4
  • c. PAI-1 4G/5G
  • d. COL2A1 rsl2722877
Correct Answer: a
93. Fracture of necessity include all except:
  • a. Displaced lateral condyle fracture of humerus
  • b. Displaced fracture neck of femur
  • c. Galeazzi fracture dislocation
  • d. Torus fracture of radius
Correct Answer: d
94. Ludwig's angina most commonly arises from infection of the:
  • a. Parotid gland
  • b. Palatine tonsils
  • c. Submandibular space
  • d. Nasopharynx
Correct Answer: c
95. A liver biopsy from a patient with hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) shows a "trabecular > 3 cells thick" pattern. Molecular profiling reveals TERT promoter mutation and CTNNB1 activation. Which of the following is the most likely risk factor for this tumor?
  • a. HBV infection
  • b. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
  • c. Wilson disease
  • d. Glycogen storage disease type 1a
Correct Answer: b
96. Which of the following agents is most commonly used to induce general anesthesia?
  • a. Propofol
  • b. Morphine
  • c. Atropine
  • d. Succinylcholine
Correct Answer: a
97. A 25-year-old woman with recurrent miscarriages is found to have a prolonged PTT that corrects with mixing study. Antiphospholipid antibody testing is negative. Genetic testing reveals a mutation in the ANKRD26 gene. What is the underlying mechanism of her condition?
  • a. Defective Von Willebrand Factor Cleavage
  • b. Platelet glycoprotein Ib IX dysfunction
  • c. Impaired thrombin generation
  • d. Tissue factor pathway inhibitor over expression
Correct Answer: c
98. An FNAC report shows granulomas with caseous necrosis in a lymph node aspirate. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • a. Hodgkin's lymphoma
  • b. Tuberculous lymphadenitis
  • c. Metastatic carcinoma
  • d. Reactive lymphadenopathy
Correct Answer: b
99. A dental abscess is best initially managed by:
  • a. Warm saline rinses
  • b. Systemic antibiotics and drainage
  • c. Extraction of tooth
  • d. Gum massage
Correct Answer: b
100. All are the positive signs of pregnancy except:
  • a. Amenorrhea
  • b. Perception of active fetal movements
  • c. Auscultation of FHS
  • d. Sonographic evidence of fetus in uterus
Correct Answer: a
Do recheck answers as few are AI generated

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